Let's suppose a ship weights 10,000 tons
= 1e7 kg
ρ = 1000 kg/m^3 for water
That means one ship displaces 1e4 m^3 of water
1 cubic miles contains ~ 4 km^3 = 4e9 m^3 water
So there is enough water for 4e9 / 1e4
= 400,000 ships
Now consider area limitations
Typically the draft of a ship (depth into the water) ~ 10m.
Cross section ~ 2500 m^2
So considering area limitations, each ship requires at least 25000 m^3.
So this would allow for 4e9 / 25000 = 160,000 ships
Note, for each ship, there must be at least 1e4 m^3 of water below it. So it would not be valid to say that the water displaced by one ship will be shifted sideways and used to support another ship. That would be wrong.
2007-07-14 18:15:51
·
answer #1
·
answered by Dr D 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
It REALLY depends how that cubic mile of water is dispersed over the floor of the sea or ocean or whatever.
But if it were all standing in a cube for some reason, ANY of the ships built on earth could float on it.
If you are trying to suggest that there is Only a cubic mile of water on earth, you are mistaken. There is more.
2007-07-15 01:05:07
·
answer #2
·
answered by special-chemical-x 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
Simultaneously? It would NOT be all of them, but it could be quite a few... we disperse the water over some area. But it wouldn't be an infinite space, because ships need a depth of several yards to float.
Or, to answer in a different way, any ship that can float can flot on a cubic mile of water, provided it's deep enough.
2007-07-15 01:14:29
·
answer #3
·
answered by ufralphie 2
·
1⤊
0⤋
4.16818183 Ã 10^12 liters in a cubic mile at 1kg /liter. This equals 4.168E9 metric tonnes. That is the only hint you get now YOU think!
2007-07-15 01:12:31
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
If the water is only a few inches deep, none.
2007-07-18 11:28:36
·
answer #5
·
answered by johnandeileen2000 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
All of them. Consider the "battleship in a bathtub" thought problem, then extend it.
2007-07-15 01:10:55
·
answer #6
·
answered by Helmut 7
·
0⤊
0⤋