2007-07-14 17:16:38 · 5 answers · asked by Curious 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Because their languages (Spanish, and Portuguese for Brazil) are chiefly derived from Latin. Such language are called "Romance languages."
English, on the other hand, is said to be chiefly derived from German. It is a "Teutonic language."
As I see it, the New World speakers of Spanish and Portuguese would be just as correct to refer to the US and Canada (at least the English-speaking portion) as "America alemana" (Germanic America) as we are to refer to their lands as "Latin America."
[Having said that: At least 75% of English comes from either Latin or a Romance language -- yet it is still considered a Teutonic language. Go figure.]
2007-07-14 17:26:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Spanish is a "Latin" language--Many words derived from the Latin language of ancient Rome.
2007-07-14 17:21:29 · answer #2 · answered by Topsail 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
because Spanish and Portuguese are derived by the Latin language which are predominant spoken in "Latin America"
2007-07-14 17:22:33 · answer #3 · answered by fun 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It has more to do than the origin of the language, read your history books, and compare Italian to Spanish, there are many similarities
2007-07-14 17:19:17 · answer #4 · answered by Elizabeth L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The simple fact of he matter is that the root of Their language is mooted in an abstraction of Latin.
2007-07-14 17:23:17 · answer #5 · answered by Ashleigh 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋