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f is concave down on (-inf, 0) would that be true even if there's a 0 (1st deriv) at x=-3
then the answer would be all true?

2007-07-14 12:03:26 · 2 answers · asked by chimstr 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Yes, that is true; even if the "0" is at -3 the entire graph of f can still be concave down on (-inf, 0).

Found this at:

http://www.sosmath.com/calculus/diff/der15/der15.html

check the red function on the second graph on the page. This could be like your f but shifted a little to the left.

2007-07-14 12:10:17 · answer #1 · answered by David G 1 · 0 0

y" changes its sign from - to + as it passes through x=0 so it has a point of inflection there.

2007-07-14 19:22:15 · answer #2 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 0

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