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I've been wondering lately...
I feel that I KNOW it is correct to refer to incorrect usage (or use?) of words as 'poor grammar' -- even to the point that I am correcting people when they say 'bad grammar'. But I have no reason. I just feel that it's more correct.
This came about from a misunderstanding the other day. I told a friend of mine that I had a 'bad memory', and he became concerned. "What is it? Do you want to talk?" I was puzzled for a second, then realized what he meant. I explained that I meant 'poor memory' -- I have trouble remembering things.
But the same thing doesn't apply when you refer to grammar does it?

2007-07-14 06:55:58 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

Well I happen to appreciate the beauty of correct grammar, and, although I don't always practice it, I would still like to understand it better.
=-)

2007-07-14 07:04:30 · update #1

Mark, what are you talking about? =-)
I'm just asking is there a certain rule governing 'bad' vs 'poor', or is it just something someone decided sounds more appropriate?

2007-07-14 07:08:26 · update #2

6 answers

I can see you are indeed a connoisseur of words and usage.

Giving an answer right off the top of my head, without too much thought, I'd say that "bad grammar" and "poor grammar" could be slightly different things. The former could refer to language usage that is absolutely incorrect and unacceptable, while the latter might imply that the grammar was not of the highest caliber and yet allowable. Does that make sense?

For instance:

Spending time reading with our kids is very important to my husband and I = bad grammer (should be, 'my husband and me')

Spending time reading with our kids is very important to me and my husband = poor grammar but acceptable (should be, 'my husband and me')

2007-07-14 07:09:35 · answer #1 · answered by ? 5 · 2 1

People understand what you mean.

If you can help ANYONE on Y!A by being a 'critic' in a positive way relative to their 'bad' or 'poor' grammar and/or spelling, whether you have a 'bad' memory or a 'poor' memory, is of no consequence !!

Hopefully they will take note !! Now THAT would be a 'consequence'.

2007-07-14 07:03:28 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

"Bad" v "poor:" the words are not synonymous. "Bad" is most often the antonym of "good," while "poor" is often that of "rich." To say, "I have a 'bad' memory" connotes a negative memory of a single event, while a "poor" memory carries the connotation of a negative psychological problem. I keep telling you that our language is insane. This is why so many people on Y/A who wish to be writers need to understand linguistics. Few of them do. (Another clue to solving the mystery)?

2007-07-14 07:48:27 · answer #3 · answered by Elaine P...is for Poetry 7 · 1 1

When talking on daily basis, the correct usage of grammar is no longer in place...coloquial language is most often use an accepted in daily verbal communication. The proper use of grammar should be applied, in most cases, in official written communication and Special verbal communication...We have to take in consideration the rapid change of language and how difficult it would be to stick to the traditonal way.

Good Luck

2007-07-14 07:02:04 · answer #4 · answered by Nicole E 4 · 0 2

I would say it's perfectly correct to say "bad grammar," but "poor grammar" does sound better.

2007-07-14 07:01:29 · answer #5 · answered by Lanani 6 · 1 0

"bad" as a word carries a distinct negative connotation, almost one of brokenness or being flawed, whereas "poor" seems to indicate a deficiency in functionality, not a complete inability to function.

2007-07-14 07:15:07 · answer #6 · answered by veda_renee 2 · 3 0

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