Provide scripture...
2007-07-13 19:27:03 · 9 answers · asked by job_32787 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
God certainly seemed in favor of it when he impregnated Mary.
2007-07-13 19:30:16 · answer #1 · answered by Phartzalot 6 · 2⤊ 5⤋
Premarital sex = fornication.
The following is a list of scriptures which contain the word fornication (at least in the KJV).
2Chr 21:11
Isa 23:17
Ezek 16:15, 26, 29
Matt 5:32
Matt 15:19
Matt 19:9
Mark 7:21
John 8:41
Acts 15:20, 29
Acts 21:25
Rom 1:29
1Cor 5:1, 9-11
1Cor 6:9, 13, 18
1Cor 7:2
1Cor 10:8
2Cor 12:21
Gal 5:19
Eph 5:3
Col 3:5
1Thes 4:3
Heb 12:16
Jude 1:7
Rev 2:14, 20-21
Rev 9:21
Rev 14:8
Rev 17:2, 4
Rev 18:3, 9
Rev 19:2
2007-07-14 02:48:37 · answer #2 · answered by zxcv 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
it would take a very long time to give you all the passages- look up the word fornication- it means sex outside of marriage, plus other things- there are many. The word premarital sex is not in there, but fornication is plenty of places.
2007-07-14 02:32:27 · answer #3 · answered by AdoreHim 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
… Hebrews 13:4 says this: Marriage is to be held in honor among all, and the marriage bed is to be undefiled; for fornicators and adulterers God will judge. (New American Standard Bible)
**
…1 Corinthians 6:9-11
…9 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals,
…10 nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God.
…11 Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.
2007-07-14 02:52:48 · answer #4 · answered by carson123 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It does say it. However, nowhere in the Bible does it define marriage-what it is or who is authorized to perform it. I do know that governments of that time did not involve themselves in the marriage process.
Today's marriages are Christian forced unions-whether or not you are Christian. Except that the government has replaced the church in authority. Would that mean that even if you are married, if it is not done by proper Christian authority, you are still sinning? hmmm
2007-07-14 02:33:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It says something like "fornication" - a unmarried man and woman must not lie together like married ones. something like that. but i have no idea what the passage is.
2007-07-14 02:39:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
read in proverbs . as well the new testament as well revelation.21. vs.6.7. 8.
2007-07-14 02:37:57 · answer #7 · answered by the_silverfoxx 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Why Bible advise to Burn the Daughter of Priest if she does sex?
Leviticus 21:9 And the daughter of any priest, if she profane herself by playing the whore, she profaneth her father: she shall be burnt with fire.
A priest's daughter, if found to have lost her virginity without marriage, can receive the death penalty, but in the form of incineration.
How many fundamentalist priests who so easily condemn others would carry out the burning of their daughters if they found them "whoring"?
Why Bible want to set a fire on woman?
Genesis 38:24 And it came to pass about three months after, that it was told Judah, saying, Tamar thy daughter in law hath played the harlot; and also, behold, she [is] with child by whoredom. And Judah said, Bring her forth, and let her be burnt.
A priest's daughter, if found to have lost her virginity without marriage, can receive the death penalty, but in the form of incineration.
How many fundamentalist priests who so easily condemn others would carry out the burning of their daughters if they found them "whoring"?
Why Bible wants to Cut the hands of wife if she support her husband? Because she is woman?
Deuteronomy 25:11-12 "When men strive together one with another, and the wife of the one draweth near for to deliver her husband out of the hand of him that smiteth him, and putteth forth her hand, and taketh him by the secrets: then thou shalt cut off her hand, thine eye shall not pity her." A wife would naturally wish to come to the aid of her husband in any way she could if he desperately struggled with an opponent, but the Hebrew law specifically forbade a wife to help her husband in distress if that support consisted of her grabbing the enemy's genitals in an effort to stifle his onslaught. The penalty? Amputation of the hand that fondled the genitals!
Only in an overly obsessive male dominated culture could men create such atrocious laws. As such, the penis ranked sacrosanct in the minds of men (as it still stands today). If a male lost his penis for any reason, he would lose the right to enter a congregation of God. (See Deuteronomy 23:1)
Why Bible chooses Penalty for Female Births? Are all dames dirty?
Leviticus 12:2
Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean.
Leviticus 12:5
But if she bear a maid child, then she shall be unclean two weeks, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying threescore and six days.
A woman who gives birth to a child must undergo a purification ritual lest her "uncleanness" contaminate others. This not only entails her isolation, but also payments to priests for the ritual acts. Thus the male dominators had even made birth dirty.
Notice here that if a woman bears a female child, her isolation must last twice as long as that if she gives birth to a male child! (See also Psalms 51:3-5)
Why Bible declares, Females are in Inferior than males?
I Corinthians 11:3 "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God."
The Bible's decree of male supremacy has kept woman inferior to men for centuries. For the religious, it comes as a sad fact that a human must have a penis to receive any respect or power within the Church.
All woman should realize that such phrases in the Bible has justified for many Christian men, not only their supremacy but a reason to sexually abuse women. (See also I Cor. 14:34-36, I Timothy 2:8-15, I Peter 3:1-7, Ephesians 5:22-24, Col. 3:18-19)
Why Bible declares male supremacy over females?
I Corinthians 11:8-9 "For the man is not of the woman; but the woman of the man. Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man."
The Bible's decree of male supremacy has kept woman inferior to men for centuries. For the religious, it comes as a sad fact that a human must have a penis to receive any respect or power within the Church.
All woman should realize that such phrases in the Bible has justified for many Christian men, not only their supremacy but a reason to sexually abuse women. (See also I Cor. 14:34-36, I Timothy 2:8-15, I Peter 3:1-7, Ephesians 5:22-24, Col. 3:18-19)
Bible wants to kill illegitimate Children. Can innocent children be punished?
Revelation 2:22-23 "Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their deeds. And I will kill her children with death; and all the churches shall know that I am he which searcheth the reins and hearts: and I will give unto every one of you according to your works."
If anyone thinks Biblical Jesus represents only a peaceful loving soul, then think again. For an act of adultery, Bible would kill innocent children for the adultery of others; hardly fair justice, love, or the concern for human beings. Bible wants to kill adulterous population of Bible Believers. Adulterous population has substantial ratio in Bible Believers.There are more than 41% love children in American population. If you believe in bible, half of Christian population will be killed.....
2007-07-14 02:32:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
i dont really know where in the bible it says that.......huh........
2007-07-14 02:31:17 · answer #9 · answered by 17227 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋