Psalm 109:6
KJV Set thou a wicked man over him: and let Satan stand at his right hand.
NIV Appoint an evil man to oppose him; let an accuser stand at his right hand.
Luke 4:8
KJV And Jesus answered and said unto him, Get thee behind me, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.
NIV Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Worship the Lord your God and serve him only.'"
What did he do to deserve that?
2007-07-13 11:59:31 · 6 answers · asked by Holy Holly 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The first verse the translators use the generic rather than a proper name interpretation of the word. The word "Satan" means an adversary, or opposer.
In the second verse from Luke I believe the reason is that this is an example of what translators refer to as a "scribal gloss."
What that means is, in certain passages of the Bible where one event is set forth in more detail in one place than another, the details of the more elaborate passage are supplied by the translators in the less elaborate passage, even though they don't appear in the original Greek.
A good example of this is the Lord's prayer in Matthew's Gospel as compared with the Lord's prayer in Luke's Gospel. In the Greek the passage in Luke is much more abbreviated, but the KJV translators carried over the portions appearing in Matthew to the passage in Luke, even though it is not in the original manuscripts. In the passage you mention, part of the verse in Luke does not appear in the original Greek, but it does appear in the Greek of Matthew's Gospel, and is therefore supplied by the translators of the KJV.
Hope that makes sense.
2007-07-13 12:11:36 · answer #1 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The KJV is the only one I found that uses "Satan" in the Psalm passage. The literal translation, the Geneva Bible and the American Standard use the word "adversary", I am no apologist for the NIV but isn't Satan called the "accuser of the brethren"?
Concerning the Luke 4 passage, this commentary may shed some light on why that part was omitted.
(1) "Luk 4:8 - Jesus answered and said unto him,.... The following words, with indignation at him, and detestation of his proposals:
get thee behind me, Satan; which are omitted in the Vulgate Latin, Syriac, Persic, and Ethiopic versions, and in three ancient copies of Beza's, and in his most ancient one; but stand in other copies, and in the Arabic version. "
2007-07-13 12:10:31 · answer #2 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because in the old testament Satan was not an evil demon. He was just an accuser of men. Nobody would be worthy of god in his eyes. The very name Satan means accuser. Just read the book of Job and make a note of what is said between god and Satan. He accuses Job of not truly loving god because he is privileged, and is allowed to test him.
2007-07-13 12:09:58 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
KJV is based on the textus receptus. NIV is a more on interpretative easy to understand version. It is really a problem not only NIV but also other translation.
2007-07-13 12:06:17 · answer #4 · answered by d1754 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Satanic verses written by the hijackers of the true message of Jesus the Jewish Messiah.
Jesus also stands on the right hand so it makes him look bad.......
If it looks bad, just CHANGE IT !!
Since it is all manmade words anyhow.
.
2007-07-13 12:02:38 · answer #5 · answered by kloneme 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Because they thought they were going to make a nicer Bible that doesnt deal with Sodomites, Satan or hell.
2007-07-13 12:04:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋