Why aren't any of them Jesus? Did he not know that his earthly mother would name him that?
2007-07-12 09:17:22 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because Jesus was not his name. Jesus is a greek name. He was a hebrew child. His name was Joshua.
As for not naming himself that? Who knows, maybe he likes surprises.
2007-07-12 09:48:48 · answer #1 · answered by lupinesidhe 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
One reason is that Jesus is the Greek form. The Old Testament was in Hebrew. The Hebrew equivalent would be Yeshua, or translated to English, Joshua. It never said Jesus but it did prophesy Immanuel, Prince of Peace, etc. The Old Testament also contains many prophecies about the coming Messiah. Jesus fulfilled most of those and will fulfill the rest when He returns.
He first had to be the Lamb of God, which meant the ultimate sacrifice for the sins of mankind. Jews sacrificed lambs to atone for their sins back then. The Old Testament hasn't changed, so I don't know why they don't do that today. One would think that since they don't recognize Jesus' death as having any spiritual meaning, they would still sacrifice sheep, goats, etc. to atone for their sins.
2007-07-12 16:01:29 · answer #2 · answered by fuzz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
non secular books are canonizations of countless texts, arranged via non secular scholars, courts, or different government over the years. For Jews, the order is this: First the Torah (T in Tanakh) replaced into assembled from a sequence of historical scriptures. Then, the prophets (Neviim is N in Tanakh) replaced into assembled from countless sources (Isaiah, Jeremiah, Daniel, and so on.). finally, a compendium of scholarly diagnosis replaced into printed. (Ketuvim, ok in Tanakh, ability writing in Hebrew) The order of the books logically follows the historic past of the Jewish people and the evolution of their non secular theory. Christianity emerged as a faith after the Torah & Neviim have been printed. Christian scholars risk-free those of their Bibles, and further the Gospels (New testomony). In all situations, the order and interpretation of the text cloth is useful to assist the prevalent message of the religion. Even right this moment, minor variations to those records are easy. in spite of the undeniable fact that, any replace generally finally ends up in a schism interior the non secular stream, ensuing in a sparkling sect.
2016-11-09 03:39:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you're referring to Yahweh or Elohim, that "Yahweh" means Lord and "Elohim" means God. Edonay means "my lord."
However, God is not Jesus. Jesus is the son of God. The only times he was mentioned in the Old Testament was as Emmanuel. Other than that, don't confuse God with his son. They may be part of the Trinity, but they are not entirely the same.
2007-07-12 09:53:21 · answer #4 · answered by erebusnova 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Well one answer would be because they are different people. From a trinitarian perspective, the God who revealed himself in the Old Testament is the father person of the trinity, and Jesus is the son person.
But that falls apart because when Jesus reveals himself as God he says "I am" which is in reference to Yahweh's name. They're all the same person.
"Jesus" is from the same Hebrew word as "Joshua" and I think it would confuse people at the time if God had told them a human name to describe himself. He wasn't human at the time.
2007-07-12 09:49:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Immanuel=God with us. Find the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah 7:10-...........
Matt. 1:23--....and you shall call His name Immanuel, for He shall save His people from their sins.
Jesus-the Greek form of Joshua (Heb., lit. Yahweh saves.)
Also in the N.T. (Iknow, I know, but not all Jews reject Jesus as their long awaited Messiah.)
In Hebrews 1:8 God calls Jesus, God. "But to the Son He says, "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever;....."
In Rev. 21:6 The Alpha and Omega
Rev. 19:16 King of Kings, Lord of Lords ( the Sovereign Almighty.)
John 1:1 Word (Who was in the beginning with God, and who was God.)
2007-07-12 10:09:36 · answer #6 · answered by beano™ 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the tenach never said the name of the messiah would have the name of God....
acc to hebrew tradition....this is not allowed anyhow... people can have a reference to God in their name but cannot be called by god's actual name. Only God can be called by his own name, because it is too sacred to be shared like that.
the angel told miriam to name the child Yahosua..which means God is my salvation.
Jesus said he was the (spirit) son of God...He never claimed to take the place of his father in heaven...in fact ...he said..."the Father is greater than I"..Jesus was submissive to his heavenly father...he never tried to be equal with him.
what has confused people is that Jesus claimed he shared his heavenly father's divinity...as any son would share the nature of his father....just as a prince is royal...like the king is royal....does not make the prince a king...the king is still king....
so as the father is divine...so is Jesus, as the son, divine...but Jesus is not the Father God. make sense?
2007-07-12 10:02:23 · answer #7 · answered by Marianne T 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The names God gives himself in the Old Testament are names in reference to God the Father. Christ is God the Son. While in the grand scheme of existence both qualify as that which Christians worship as God, the instances in which you are referencing are more specific than that.
2007-07-12 09:49:10 · answer #8 · answered by Shawn L 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
God always ends up with a new name everytime he comes agin depending on how the people around him talk. the name for god is a human name, god in himself is nameless and unpronounceable and undefinable, as we humans can not truly understand god. the only knolege of god that we have is of when he manifests himself in people like moses and christ and muhamad ect....
2007-07-12 10:00:19 · answer #9 · answered by Aztrik 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad." The Jews therefore said to Him, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?"
Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, BEFORE Abraham was born, I am." Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple. (John 8:56-59)
"But as for Me, I have installed My King upon Zion, My holy mountain...Thou art My Son, Today I have begotten Thee...Ask of Me and I will surely give the nations as Thine inheritance..." (PSALM 2:6-9).
Many look to a future age when Jesus will come back to fulfill this prophecy. They believe He will be made king on literal Mount Zion and will rule from there over the nations of the world. But the New Testament affirms that this prophecy has been fulfilled by the resurrection of Jesus; "that God has fulfilled this promise to our children in that He raised up Jesus, as it is also written in the second Psalm, 'Thou art My Son, this day I have begotten Thee" (ACTS 13:30-33). It is the gospel which has been "made known to all the nations, leading to the obedience of faith" that has given Jesus an inheritance of all the nations (ROMANS 16:25,26).
2007-07-12 09:49:29 · answer #10 · answered by RG 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋