Why were the Gospels written in Greek considering that Jesus spoke presumably Aramaic?

Answer 1

Why were the gospels written decades after he died?

Answer 2

Whatttt???? Jeez. Ok. Let me get my thoughts back together. If they had written the NT in Aramaic, 98% of the world wouldn't have been able to read it. Of course, in those days, 99% of the people weren't reading, anyway. But you get the idea. The priests and whomevers could read Greek and Latin, but Aramaic was a weird little language of some desert tribes. Oh, so you think all Christians read Aramic? Cool idea. Not very likely to be true, though. When was the last time anyone ever took a CLEP or AP exam on Aramaic. Hello? You really awake?

Answer 3

Why are the gospels written in English (majority) considering Jesus spoke presumably Aramaic?

Answer 4

Hello,

Because Koine Greek was the universal language of the Roman Empire at that time very much like English is for commerce today. You can thank Alexander the Great who had conquered the Mediterranean world 250 years before Christ's time and Hellenized it to a certain degree.

No Roman magistrate got a foreign posting if he did not speak Greek. The business of trade was often in Greek as well. It is highly likeky rhat Christ didn't speak Latin or Pilate Aramaic so his hearing with Pilate was most likely in Greek.

Having the gospels in Greelk therefore was very pratical when so many people and cultures used it for their business and trade.

Michael Kelly

Answer 5

The Gospels were not written for Jesus. They were written for everyone. At the time, Greek was a universal language that most people understood. So they were written in Greek because it was more practical. Writing them in Aramaic would have severely limited the audience receiving the message.

Answer 6

Jesus presumably spoke Greek - he was Galilean, and spent most of his time in Syria and the Decapolis. The phrasing of several quotes attributed to Jesus indicate a Greek composition, and the Gospels go out of their way to tell us when Jesus spoke Aramaic.

But it is a common misconception - it has only been in the last few decades that scholars have pieced together an accurate picture of Galilee. It was not a backwater - it was a heavily Hellenized area.

Answer 7

Matthew was originally in Aramaic, according to the earliest sources. Greek was "Koine" at the time, though, so it would make sense for the Bible to be in Greek. Incidentally, the most of the Old Testament quotes in the New Testament come from the Greek Septuagint version, rather than the Hebrew version.

Answer 8

There were other languages used throughout the bible to prove that there is authenticity. The New Testament was written almost over 400 years. Authors could not have gotten togedether to write it- like the mormans did. It was written in HEBREW< ARABIC AND GREEK . The old Testament was written over 1000 years. The books of the Bible were written by a prophet or apostle.There were called scribes, but they were chosen By God.

Answer 9

Greek was the trade language of that day in the Meditreanian countries and even further east ... any who were leterate could read and write Greek... as copies were widly spread by traders It was common for all important writing to be in Greek.

Answer 10

I would guess maybe Aramaic wasn't John, Mark, ect. best or first language. Maybe they spoke and wrote greek better than aramaic.

Answer 11

Greek was the dominant "written" language of the time...Aramaic was not the dominant language...