Men wrote the bible man...it's how they thought back then, a bit unfair really...
2007-07-12 06:50:29
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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That is under the old law given to the Israelites - if a woman remarries when her husband is still alive, then she is an adulteress. However, if her husband abused her, then he would have been put to death, so she would have been free to remarry.
I personally believe that, these days, if a woman divorces because of abuse and then remarries (with no lack of fidelity until the divorce is final and no act of adultery before the next marriage is legal) then she is not a adulteress.
To understand how this all works out technically, you would have to understand how it was that Christ's sacrifice fulfilled the law given the Israelites and how things are different now.
2007-07-12 07:05:12
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answer #2
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answered by twizz 2
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No.
There is no law in scripture that a woman cannot own property or keep herself, but, all society has unwritten rules.
There is no prohibition in scripture about a woman divorcing a man, although there is neither any law that tells us she can. Unlike the Koran it is not forbidden for a wife to divorce her husband.
In society women did not have the right, nor did they want the right, to divorce or keep themselves in Ancient times, except in the most civilized of places and then women who kept themselves were generally shunned because they rejected the ways of society.
In other words, people who lived differently from the way everyone else lived were treated badly, just like they are today.
You need to understand the culture of the times. There was no legal system as we think of it. People generally fought things out, getting other involved. Think of the "Old West" without the cavalry or the sheriff or the guy in the white hat.
It was anarchistic, the strong survive, Darwinian (if you like).
Sure, women did fight and kill some men, just like they do today. Just like today the majority of fighters were men and the majority of women put themselves under the protection of men, it was essentially a survival/sociological thing.
The stories in the Bible were reflective of the times. The laws in the Bible is an attempt by God to bring some order to the anarchistic way people lived.
Wives were held in high esteem than "servants" or "maids" and if you do a search on "maid" or "Maids" in the King James Bible you will find specific rules about how people treat them.
There are no similar rules about abusing your wife because the very thought was abhorrent to the people. (or the wife of thy bosom ... which is as thine own soul...)
You did not debase a wife as you would a servant, it was not even considered and a man who did so was shunned just as a woman who kept herself was shunned even though there is no specific law regarding a woman keeping herself in scripture.
PS: In Matthew 5:32 the word translated to Adultery or Fornication is por-ni'-ah which is our root for Pornography and could be considered defilement. Abuse is a form of defilement.
I could go on in the sociological, theological and academic translational issues around Matthew 5:32 and Biblical times and 99% would not read it anyway. The 1% that do would learn something and probably follow up with their own research.
2007-07-12 07:17:52
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I've struggled (and continue to struggle) with this one (I was divorced 12 years ago and haven't remarried...yet???)...
In the case of divorce because of abuse, I would have to say NO. The bible makes it clear that marital infidelity is a legitimate reason for divorce and that the one who divorces someone for that reason is free to marry again (the one who committed the infidelity is already an adulterer(ess).
More broadly, I Cor 7 suggests that if a believer is married to an unbeliever and the unbeliever want to leave, that the believer should let him (or her) go...that believers aren't bound by such things. The bible also says that women should submit to their husbands AS THEY SUBMIT TO THE LORD...people forget that part. This suggests that a woman is under no obligation to submit to he husband if he isn't submissive to the Lord!
Certainly a man who abuses his wife is not being faithful to the vows he made to her...abuse is a form of infidelity! Furthermore, a man who abuses his wife is not submitting to the Lord. Thus, it you divorce someone who abused you, I think you are free in the eyes of God.
2007-07-12 07:07:05
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answer #4
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answered by KAL 7
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Then 'Vive la Adulteress!' because I divorced my first husband who is an alcoholic after 10 years in HELL, and am now remarried to a most wonderful man whom I cannot imagine not being with!! And I would do it again...and I am a Christian and know many others who have remarried.
2007-07-12 06:55:33
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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The Bible tells us that the only reason that we are allowed to divorce and remarry is in the case of infidelity. That does not mean abuse as one of your other answers put it. It is only when you are not faithful to your partner, and are sleeping around. In light of this I still believe that God would never have us to suffer. In that case I think that an abused women should leave her husband. However it would be adultery if she remarried.
2007-07-12 07:34:17
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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No if a woman is abused then she is no longer bound by marriage because the man is not being the head of the house as God commanded. Thats what I BELIEVE . In instances of life and death or cheating in mariage I believe that God is fine with divorce and remarriage. Hope this helps.
2007-07-12 06:53:10
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answer #7
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answered by pony 3
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And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.(Mk 10:12)
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sorry twizz but nothing is different now. The old testament is as valid today as it ever was. You may wish you can seperate the old from the new, but you may not. I have no idea where that ever came from, but there is no biblical validation for it. The old testament is all about Christ, He tells us Himself in Lk 24:27 "And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself". If you read your OT, and fail to find Christ therein, you are not seeing the truth of God's word.
2007-07-12 07:00:17
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Right, because she's still married to her first husband. Marriage leaves an indelible mark on the soul that binds one man to one woman until one or the other of the dies. Thus a civil divorce does nothing really, except maybe help an abused woman (or man, for that matter) deal with things financially. But from a metaphysical point of view, they are still married to each other, and nothing can be done to change that, other than killing one of them.
2007-07-12 06:53:40
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answer #9
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answered by delsydebothom 4
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No thats not true. Once you get a divorce from someone, even though God doesn't like it that much, the relationship between you and your ex is severed forever. Both in the spiritual and physical realm. As long as you are divorced then your not an adultress. Although many in the catholic church believe that is not the truth.
2007-07-12 06:51:40
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes, but she is only an adultress if she remarries, remember, Jesus said, neither do I condemn you, Go and sin no more!! No woman should stay where she is being abused in any form or fashion. But, getting remarried is a whole other issue.
2007-07-12 06:57:02
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answer #11
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answered by victor 7707 7
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