If God does not change his mind why did he make a new covenant?
2007-07-12 04:25:44 · 8 answers · asked by beatme 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
What better way to make converts? "God doesn't love you anymore. God loves *us* now."
2007-07-12 05:01:34 · answer #1 · answered by The angels have the phone box. 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If you read through scripture, you will find that God made many different convenants with different people over the centuries.
Noah was only required to build a boat for salvation
Abraham had circumcision, but no 10 Commandments and other Mosaic Laws
Job (who was a non-Jew) had a convenant of taking bread and wine with his family regularly.
God has always made different convenants with different groups. So in that respect he has not "changed his mind". He still has a unique convenant with the Jews. But he has another convenant, that come out of the Jewish convenant, that he has made with the rest of mankind.
If you read Romans 10 and 11, you will see how the Bible explains the relationship between those two convenants, and how even the Jews will benefit from the Christian covenant, as the Christians now benefit from the Jewish convenant.
God did not "change his mind", but rather he found a way to expand his covenant to all of mankind.
2007-07-12 11:40:11 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've asked this question before and was met with less than inspiring answers Good luck. My understanding is that OT God was capricious because the Jews had a lot of bad luck but NT God is warm and fuzzy because God Loves You. I think in another thousand years God is gonna be capricious again. God needs meds.
2007-07-12 11:31:01 · answer #3 · answered by Jake S 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
His new covenant is still with Jewish people. read ROM 9-11.
He came for them first and salvation came to gentiles to make the Jews jealous.
He changes His mind for the best the ones HE loves.
2007-07-12 11:33:47 · answer #4 · answered by Benyamin 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Exactly.
And if it was a part of his plan from the begining, why did he spend soo much effort for the first 4000 years of Jewish history, keeping them separate from the Gentiles.
Read Numbers 31, you will see the lengths that God wanted the Jews to kill hundreds and thousands of women and boys who were captured after battle, because they were Gentiles and unclean.
If he planned on including Gentiles in the fold 3000 years later, why would he condem pre-christ gentiles to hell?
2007-07-12 11:31:45 · answer #5 · answered by ɹɐǝɟsuɐs Blessed Cheese Maker 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I thought god loved everyone.
He made a new covenant? By he do you mean god came to your house and wrote in your current bible or did he give a vision to some insane person on earth who claimed the bible needed to have a new covenant added and god spoke to him so you all have to do it. You believe that? Silly.
2007-07-12 11:29:27 · answer #6 · answered by Agnostic Front 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
You are, of course, making the assumption that the "New Testament" is a divinely-inspired document, that Jesus is the messiah, and so on. Since I'm Jewish I don't believe any of this, making your question irrelevant.
2007-07-12 18:39:12 · answer #7 · answered by Mark S, JPAA 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
When he was talking to Moses before he destroyed Sodom & Gomorrah, he kept changing his mind (since he couldn't figure out how many 'good' people were in those cities)
Fickle old man >;-(
2007-07-12 11:33:31 · answer #8 · answered by strpenta 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋