Another Jehovah's Witness Question...?

Question

ok..so....to my understanding JW's claim that Jehovah is the "One True God." Thus, if there is only one true God, then all other God's must be false.

The NWT renders John 1:1, "In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god."

Obviously Jesus is being referred to as the Word, but it refers to Him as a god... So is he a true or false god?

Some might say that he is god-like, but the verse doesn't say that, it says he was "a god."


so ya...let me know what you think! :)

Answer 1

The only Scripture which refers to "the only true God" makes it incredibly obvious that Jesus is a person distinct from "the only true God"!

(John 17:3) This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.


Since Jesus (the Son) was "sent forth" on an assignment from "the only true God", the two cannot be the same person. Interestingly, the verse even teaches that God is superior to Jesus (since Jesus the Son directs prayer to and performs the work assigned by God the Father).


Meanwhile, it is sad when anti-Witnesses imply that Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jesus to be "false".

None of the Scriptures which have been translated to refer to Jehovah as "true" actually uses a term which is strictly an antonym of "false". Instead, in both Hebrew and Greek the terms convey the sense of being an "absolute" or "genuine" god in comparison with other so-called "gods". Almighty Jehovah has no peer among so-called "gods" such as Baal and Molech, Zeus and Jupiter.

Interestingly, the Scriptures nine times refer to Jehovah as "the true Lord". Yet the word "lord" is used dozens of times in reference to kings, dignitaries, masters, angels, and (of course) Jesus Christ. Would this questioner pretend that all of these "lords" must be "false" or else also be part of a single mysterious multi-personalitied "true Lord"?

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/20050422/article_02.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/200602b/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/19990208/article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20040122/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20050422/article_03.htm

http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/pr/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/dg/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm

Answer 2

Jehovah is the one true God, but Jesus is "a" god too. But not God almighty. Other bibles, and not the NWT, translate that verse as "the word was divine" or divine was the Word. Jesus is certainly divine.

AT JOHN 1:1 the King James Version reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Trinitarians claim that this means that “the Word” (Greek, ho lo′gos) who came to earth as Jesus Christ was Almighty God himself.

Note, however, that here again the context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding. Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” (Italics ours.) Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person. In agreement with this, the Journal of Biblical Literature, edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer, notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean “the” God, this “would then contradict the preceding clause,” which says that the Word was with God.

Notice, too, how other translations render this part of the verse:

1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.

1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.

1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

At John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun the·os′ (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was (“and the Word [lo′gos] was with God [a form of the·os′]”). This first the·os′ is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God (“and the Word was with [the] God”).

On the other hand, there is no article before the second the·os′ at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, “and god was the Word.” Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the·os′ (a predicate noun) as “divine,” “godlike,” or “a god.” On what authority do they do this?

Answer 3

Hello, here is a couple paragraphs from "What Does The Bible Really Teach" pgs. 202,203 published by Jehovah's Witnesses
“THE WORD WAS GOD”
John 1:1 states: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (King James Version) Later in the same chapter, the apostle John clearly shows that “the Word” is Jesus. (John 1:14) Since the Word is called God, however, some conclude that the Son and the Father must be part of the same God.
Bear in mind that this part of the Bible was originally written in Greek. Later, translators rendered the Greek text into other languages. A number of Bible translators, though, did not use the phrase “the Word was God.” Why not? Based on their knowledge of Biblical Greek, those translators concluded that the phrase “the Word was God” should be translated differently. How? Here are a few examples: “The Logos [Word] was divine.” (A New Translation of the Bible) “The Word was a god.” (The New Testament in an Improved Version) “The Word was with God and shared his nature.” (The Translator’s New Testament) According to these translations, the Word is not God himself. Instead, because of his high position among Jehovah’s creatures, the Word is referred to as “a god.” Here the term “god” means “mighty one.”
GET MORE FACTS
Most people do not know Biblical Greek. So how can you know what the apostle John really meant? Think of this example: A schoolteacher explains a subject to his students. Afterward, the students differ on how to understand the explanation. How can the students resolve the matter? They could ask the teacher for more information. No doubt, learning additional facts would help them to understand the subject better. Similarly, to grasp the meaning of John 1:1, you can look in the Gospel of John for more information on Jesus’ position. Learning additional facts on this subject will help you to draw the right conclusion.
For instance, consider what John further writes in chapter 1, verse 18: “No man has seen [Almighty] God at any time.” However, humans have seen Jesus, the Son, for John says: “The Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory.” (John 1:14, KJ) How, then, could the Son be part of Almighty God? John also states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an individual be with someone and at the same time be that person? Moreover, as recorded at John 17:3, Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly Father. He calls his Father “the only true God.” And toward the end of his Gospel, John sums up matters by saying: “These have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” (John 20:31) Notice that Jesus is called, not God, but the Son of God. This additional information provided in the Gospel of John shows how John 1:1 should be understood. Jesus, the Word, is “a god” in the sense that he has a high position but is not the same as Almighty God."

There you are. A copy of that book can be obtained free of charge by writing to 25 Columbia Heights, Brooklyn, NY 11201-2483 or visiting a local Kingdom Hall of Jehovah's Witness. Ever wondered why JW's get ragged on sooo much? :-) Not only did Jesus himself suffer fierce persecution but he also forewarned his followers that the same would happen to them. (Matthew 5:10-12)
Have a Good Day!

Answer 4

Compare John 1:1 - 3 with Genesis 1:1. Both are talking about GOD. In John 1:3, it says "All things were made by Him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." Now since Genesis 1:1 says, "In the beginning GOD created the heaven and the earth." Then "All things were made by HIM" , GOD. In John 1:1-3, the Bible is speaking of GOD, not some little god. And yes there are 'gods.' "gods" are things like money, power, popularity, sex, material things, etc...anything you put before God in your life becomes a little god.
But our heavenly Father is the ONE TRUE God.
The problem the JW's have is they teach that Jesus USED TO BE Michael the angel before God turned him into Jesus (a little god). But no where in any scripture is there any indication that this is so. I'd like to see scripture that says Jesus used to be Michael the angel.

Answer 5

A number of Bible translators, though, did not use the phrase “the Word was God.” Why not? Based on their knowledge of Biblical Greek, those translators concluded that the phrase “the Word was God” should be translated differently. How? Here are a few examples: “The Logos [Word] was divine.” ('A New Translation of the Bible') “The Word was a god.” ("The New Testament in an Improved Version") “The Word was with God and shared his nature.” ("The Translator’s New Testament") According to these translations, the Word is not God himself. Instead, because of his high position among Jehovah’s creatures, the Word is referred to as “a god.” Here the term “god” means “mighty one.”

For instance, consider what John further writes in chapter 1, verse 18: “No man has seen God at any time.” However, humans have seen Jesus, the Son, for John says: “The Word (Jesus) was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory.” (John 1:14, "King James Version.") John also states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an individual be with someone and at the same time be that person? Moreover, as recorded at John 17:3, Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly Father. He calls his Father “the only true God.”

Regarding the end of this system of things, he quotes Jesus as saying: “Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father.” (Matthew 24:36.)

Jesus says that the Father knows more than the Son does. If Jesus were part of Almighty God, however, he would know the same facts as his Father. So, then, the Son and the Father cannot be equal.

Jesus Christ himself said, “The Father is greater than I am” and referred to the Father as his God, “the only true God.” (John 14:28; 17:3; 20:17; Mark 15:34; Revelation 1:1; 3:12) On numerous occasions Jesus expressed his inferiority and subordination to his Father. (Matthew 4:9, 10; 20:23; Luke 22:41, 42; John 5:19; 8:42; 13:16.) Even after Jesus’ ascension into heaven his apostles continued to present the same picture.—1 Cor. 11:3; 15:20, 24-28; 1 Peter 1:3; 1Jo 2:1; 4:9, 10.

Other translations reflect this view. 'The New English Bible' says: “And what God was, the Word was.” The Greek word translated “Word” is Lo′gos; and so Moffatt’s translation reads: “The Logos was divine.” "The American Translation" reads: “ The Word was divine.” Other readings, by German translators, follow. By Böhmer: “It was tightly bound up with God, yes, itself of divine being.” By Stage: “The Word was itself of divine being.” By Menge: “And God (= of divine being) the Word was.” And by Thimme: “And God of a sort the Word was.” Being the Son of Jehovah God, he would have the divine quality, for divine means “godlike.”—Col. 2:9; compare 2 Peter 1:4, where “divine nature” is promised to Christ’s joint heirs.

Jesus said in prayer: “Father, . . . this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.” (John 17:1-3, "Revised Standard Version.") (Most translations here use the expression “the only true God” with reference to the Father. 'New English Bible' reads “who alone art truly God.” He cannot be “the only true God,” the one “who alone is truly God,” if there are two others who are God to the same degree as he is, can he? Any others referred to as “gods” must be either false or merely a reflection of the true God.)

1 Cor. 8:5, 6: "Revised Standard Version": “Although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many ‘gods’ and many ‘lords’—yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.” (This presents the Father as the “one God” of Christians and as being in a class distinct from Jesus Christ.)

If you would like further information or a free home Bible study, please get in touch with Jehovah's Witnesses at the local Kingdom Hall. Or visit their official web site - http://www.watchtower.org

Answer 6

John 1:1, RS: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB].” NE reads “what God was, the Word was.” Mo says “the Logos was divine.” AT and Sd tell us “the Word was divine.” The interlinear rendering of ED is “a god was the Word.” NW reads “the Word was a god”; NTIV uses the same wording.

What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying “the Word was God”? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os′ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god. (See 1984 Reference edition of NW, p. 1579.)

What did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: “No one [“no man,” KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son [“the only-begotten god,” NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known.” (RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God.”—John 20:31, RS.

John 1:1, 2:

RS reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.” (KJ, Dy, JB, NAB use similar wording.) However, NW reads: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This one was in the beginning with God.”

Which translation of John 1:1, 2 agrees with the context? John 1:18 says: “No one has ever seen God.” Verse 14 clearly says that “the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory.” Also, verses 1, 2 say that in the beginning he was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities.—Heb. 1:3.

Is the rendering “a god” consistent with the rules of Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was God.” But not all agree. In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,” Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·os′ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, JB and KJ both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as “a prophet.”

John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317.

In harmony with the above, AT reads: “the Word was divine”; Mo, “the Logos was divine”; NTIV, “the word was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.” Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as “a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as “gods” (Hebrew, ’elo·him′; Greek, the·oi′, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law.

Answer 7

I wouldnt put it the way you seem to quite understand it , let me help you out a little. now notice my source at the bottom of the page if it makes you feel a little more comfortable but i Use Both but mostly the NWT.

1st there are many gods 1 Cor. 8:5,6 kjv
2nd even Satan is a god 2 Cor 4:4 kjv
3rd Yes Jesus is a Mighty God Isaiah 9:6
4th but JESUS is no where ever called The ALMIGHTY GOD Exodus 6:3

Answer 8

That verse does not mention Jesus at all. It is not obvious that the Word (Logos) refers to Jesus.

There is significant difference in the Greek, "theos" without the article and "ton theos". Without the article it is the divine, single God. With the article, it refers to the lesser or god-like.

John, after all is a Gnostic. The Logos is god-like in that it is God's creative power - God spoke and all creation came into being.

Rev. Kip: So Isaiah 9:6 tells us that Jesus is God the Father ("Eternal Father")? I thought he was supposed to be God the Son.

"Therefore, is there any place in the Bible where an angel is called "a god," besides Satan being called the god of this world in 2 Cor. 4:3-4." By your own quote you show that the Bible does refer to lesser beings as a god. Satan is the god of this world. There does not need to be any other reference than that to validate the principle. Satan is a god.

Answer 9

Your assumption that if you are not the only true God, then you must be a false god.

is in error.

Moses is called Elohim to Pharaoh. (Ex 7:1),
Side note: original hebrew does not contain the word 'as'.

Jehovah makes Moses Elohim (God) to Pharaoh.

Moses is neither the true God, nor is he a false God.

The Judges of Israel are gods, so named by Jehovah.
(Ps 82:6)

Again these men are not the true God, nor are they false gods.

The angel of Jehovah is called God at Judges 13:21,22.

The angel is neither a false God, nor the true God.

These men and this angel are spokesmen for God.
These men have the power of life and death over the ones they are speaking to.

Jesus is God, a god, or divine, not because he is the only true God, but because he is the Word. The Chief Spokesman of Jehovah. (John 17:3)

Jesus has be given the power of life and death among mankind.

Just as Jehovah made Moses and the judges Gods, Jehovah has made Jesus a mighty one. (Rev 3:12)

Jesus doesn't become a 'false god' unless you worship him.

.

Answer 10

In prayer to his Father, Jesus called him the only true God. John 17:3