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4 answers

Greek was the language of the day. By having the New Testament written in Greek (and not in Hebrew), God is demonstrating that His salvation is offered not only to the Jews, but to the Gentiles.

2007-07-11 07:37:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I don't think that you are aware of the link of Greek to semitic languages. Aleph= Alpha , Beth = Beta , etc. ( a Hebraic link to Greek )

Besides that, Greek was the "English" of the day in that it was the common language for many cultures; being spoken even by those in Egypt for a long time: centuries.

And then also there is the fact that there are times when Jesus was speaking Aramaic. And it is not apparent until you look in a concordance. When Jesus says "Truly, Truly, I say unto you " He is actually shown to be using Aramaic- a semitic language, and is saying, " Amen, amen."

So I would only use simple explanations as long as I can remain accurate. In this case, saying that the New Testament was not written in a semitic language is not accurate.

2007-07-11 07:35:07 · answer #2 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 0 1

What do you advise with the aid of non-semetic languages are incapable of transmitting God's commamndments? because of the fact you picked the recent testomony {holy e book of the christians}, i anticipate you try bash christianity. Dude, in case you desire to screw christianity, this is not a solid thank you to do it. Non-semetic are merely as solid as semetic ones and don't YOU ignore IT!

2016-10-01 09:30:50 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes.

2007-07-11 07:29:47 · answer #4 · answered by JerseyRick 6 · 1 0

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