Take the question at face value.
I realize that many of you will say "morals don't come from the Bible." In this case, please try to explain why Christians claim slavery is immoral if it is not expressly stated in the Bible.
2007-07-11 07:18:37 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
All men are created equal. No one person is greater than another. In the Bible it says "All men are created in GOD's image." If were all created, were all equal and if GOD lays down the commandments for all of us to follow then it means that we all are held to the same accountablilty, thus we all are equal. So no one group of people are granted diminion over another. In the beginning in Genesis when GOD said we had sovereignty over the animals, GOD did not say we had sovereignty over each other. So I say to you, which one of us that is human, that bleeds and hurt and believe in GOD and all his glory and truelly believe can say that any ethnicity is above another?
2007-07-11 07:29:05 · answer #1 · answered by tasha7682 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Bible is partly a ethical representative, and partly a historic previous of ways women and adult males screw up. the overpowering message for the time of the full Bible is that each and every single guy or woman has an inherent worth and importance that isn't be in a position to be taken sparkling of them, it would not count number what. additionally loose will or selection could be particularly, particularly prevalent. Imo the loose will and inherent worth of a guy or woman are inseparably twined jointly. in any case, because of the fact the Bible shows a historic previous of slavery, useful. besides the indisputable fact that it additionally has the moral representative of persons inherent worth and importance, and loose will. So in that relish the Bible condones slavery, which treats people as gadgets of lesser importance. I understand that throughout the previous testomony there have been examples of the Israelites performing slavery (below direct orders from a prophet or 2) i'm now not specific a thank you to respond that question satisfactorily. the main effective elementary respond I even have is "it became into as quickly as an further cultural time." yet that sounds lame even to me. yet in addition that Christianity is wide-unfold off of the recent testomony greater advantageous than the historic one. the recent testomony is almost a sparkling settlement, and precise rules from the historic one have been overturned.
2016-09-29 12:53:59 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because, the truth is that morals do not come from God. They come from society and what society will accept at that time. Until recently, slavery was a common practice - you had to do something with all those prisoners of war, and God forbid having to pay laborers. But, when society's values changed, Christianity had no choice - either agree with society or be forced out of practice.
The Bible was used to justify slavery, just as it was used to end slavery. Thats the contradictory nature of the Bible.
2007-07-11 07:24:19 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There are a lot of things that are encouraged or approved of in the Bible that people consider to be immoral. Not only slavery, but BEATING slaves, forcing a rape victim to marry her attacker, killing people for working on the sabbath, killing kids who disobey their parents, etc. And yet, we still continue to hear day in and day out, "Atheists, where do you get your morals from? Morals come from God!" Anyone who uses their heads can see that morals do not come from God, and they certainly don't come from the Bible. We are perfectly able all on our own to figure out the difference between right and wrong.
2007-07-11 07:38:32 · answer #4 · answered by Jess H 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
This is exactly the problem with religion. You don't need a book or a creed to tell you that something is wrong. Just think about it. Are you negatively affecting people who have done nothing to deserve that treatment? Yes? Then it's immoral. It's really not rocket science.
2007-07-11 07:24:18 · answer #5 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's not in the Bible? Having servants is not considered immoral. But oppression IS. It is actually one of only two reasons (even though there are MANY types of sin in the Bible) why God destroys entire NATIONS. The other reason is idolatry. Oppression and Idolatry are direct violations of the two central commands of the Bible: Love God with all your heart, soul, mind and strength, and Love your neighbor as yourself. Oppression objectifies your neighbor, and idolatry objectifies God.
2007-07-11 07:24:08 · answer #6 · answered by peacetimewarror 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The bible commands us to love our neighbor as our self, you should read 2 Timothy 3:1-5 because it prophecys about the spirit of THIS world and what we would expirence!
2007-07-11 07:22:53 · answer #7 · answered by IslandOfApples 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The slavery talked about in the Bible was more like a job, not like modern day slavery. The people in Biblical times who would starve to death otherwise, many times lived very good lives in this way. It was like a legal contract, inniciated by the "slave"(employee), you house and feed me and my family and even give me a wage, and I will work for you.
The modern day slavery that you are talking about was more like what Egypt did. God did not condone that.
"He who kidnaps a man, whether he sells him or he is found in his possession, shall surely be put to death." (Exodus 21:16)
http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/slavery_bible.html
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2007-07-11 07:26:05 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Slavery is immoral because you're OWNING another human being. We don't need to see it forbidden in a book to understand that reducing a human life to be equal to that of a material item is wrong...
2007-07-11 07:25:01 · answer #9 · answered by Vicky 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Christians don't get their morals from the Bible, either.
Though Christians used to support slavery in part because the Bible condones it.
2007-07-11 07:22:09 · answer #10 · answered by Minh 6 · 4⤊ 2⤋