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...why didn't he have all authority in heaven and on earth until someone else GAVE it to him? (Matt. 28:18)

No long answers please.

2007-07-11 06:54:19 · 49 answers · asked by LineDancer 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

"Jesus has it, but it was GIVEN to him." Shaolt2002, does what you said make sense to you? Also, Isa. 9:6 does not say "Almighty God." It says "Mighty God."

2007-07-11 10:19:12 · update #1

Sweet p, if Jesus is Almighty God, wouldn't he already have all authority in heaven and on earth. Also, if he were God, why the need to get to the Father? Why not just go to Jesus?. BTW, I don't vote on answers, so stop being so defensive.

2007-07-11 10:25:19 · update #2

JimPettis, authority IS Power. The definition of authority: "the power to determine, adjudicate, or otherwise settle issues or disputes; jurisdiction; the right to control, command, or determine."

Before Jesus was given power, he didn't have it.

2007-07-11 10:37:07 · update #3

Melissa, you are mistaken. "In the beginning" at John 1:1 does not mean in the beginning of time. Time has no beginning. The only timeless Person is Jehovah, the Most High. (Ps. 90:2; 83:18) Jesus had a beginning. At Col. 1:15, he is called "the firstborn of every creature." God was never born. He has always existed.

2007-07-11 10:44:32 · update #4

Schneb, Jesus was no longer human when he said all authority had been given him. He had already been resurrected fom the dead.

2007-07-11 10:48:52 · update #5

Jonthecomposer, I suggest you read Matt. 28:18 again.

2007-07-11 10:50:10 · update #6

Drlauraitt01, Phil. 2 does not say Jesus was fully God.

2007-07-11 10:54:36 · update #7

Anna, your reasoning is laughable. If the man Jesus was 100% God:

Why did an angel have to strengthen him? (Luke 22:43)

Why didn't he know "the day and hour" like his Father did?

How could he be "made a little lower than angels"? If he were God, wouldn't he still be higher than they were?

Why would he say his words were not his? (John 14:26)

Why would someone else tell him what to say? (John 12:49, 50) No one tells God what to say, right?

Why would Satan and the demons mistake Jesus for the Son of God? (Matt. 4:3; Mark 3:11) Had they forgotten that Jesus was God?

Why would Jesus' disciples mistake him for the Son of God.? (Matt. 14:33)

Why would Jesus' enemies mistake him for the Son of God? (John 19:7)

And one last thing. Col. 2:9, which was written after Jesus went back to heaven, does NOT say that Jesus was God in a man's body. If it were true, are you saying that Jesus was carrying the Father and the holy spirit with him while he was on earth? Silly!

2007-07-11 11:45:32 · update #8

Anna, of course Jesus had authority as a human. But he got that from his his Father too. In his prayer to his Father he said: "according as you have given him authority over all flesh, that, as regards the whole [number] whom you have given him, he may give them everlasting life. John 17:2

John 5:22: "For the Father judges no one at all, but he has committed all the judging to the Son."

At John 6:57, Jesus mentioned that he owed his very life to his Father. He said: "I live because of the Father.

At verse 26, Jesus acknowledged that his ability to give life to his followers was also GIVEN to him. He said: "For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has GRANTED also to the Son to have life in himself.

It is amazing that you continue to ignore the obvious. EVERYTHING that Jesus has was GIVEN to him by his Father. As Jesus said at John 3:35: "The Father loves the Son and has GIVEN all things into his hand."

Everything Jesus possesses was GIVEN to him.

2007-07-11 13:24:01 · update #9

hodgiegirl2000, that is NOT what Phil. 2 says.

2007-07-12 13:00:55 · update #10

49 answers

Who Jesus Said He Was
Although Jesus rarely spoke of himself as God’s Son, he did acknowledge that he was. (Mark 14:61, 62; John 3:18; 5:25, 26; 11:4) Almost invariably, however, he said that he was “the Son of man.” By identifying himself this way, he highlighted his human birth—the fact that he was truly a man. Thus he also revealed himself to be that “son of man” whom Daniel had seen in vision appearing before Almighty God—“the Ancient of Days.”—Matthew 20:28; Daniel 7:13.

Rather than proclaim himself to be God’s Son, Jesus allowed others to reach that conclusion. And even people besides his apostles did so, including John the Baptist and Jesus’ friend Martha. (John 1:29-34; 11:27) These believed that Jesus was the promised Messiah. They learned that he had lived in heaven as a mighty spirit person and that his life had been miraculously transferred by God to the womb of the virgin Mary.—Isaiah 7:14; Matthew 1:20-23.

The Father—Superior to the Son
Jesus taught his disciples to pray: “Our Father which art in heaven, hallowed be thy name.” Our heavenly Father, whose name is Jehovah, is described in the Bible as being superior to his Son. For example, Jehovah is “from everlasting to everlasting.” But the Bible says that Jesus is “the firstborn of every creature.” That Jehovah is greater than Jesus, Jesus himself taught when he said: “My Father is greater than I.” (Matthew 6:9; Psalm 90:1, 2; Colossians 1:15; John 14:28, King James Version) Yet, the Trinity doctrine holds that the Father and the Son are “equally God.”

The Father’s superiority over the Son, as well as the fact that the Father is a separate person, is highlighted also in the prayers of Jesus, such as the one before his execution: “Father, if you wish, remove this cup [that is, an ignominious death] from me. Nevertheless, let, not my will, but yours take place.” (Luke 22:42) If God and Jesus are “one in essence,” as the Trinity doctrine says, how could Jesus’ will, or wish, seem different from that of his Father?—Hebrews 5:7, 8; 9:24.

Furthermore, if Jehovah and Jesus were the same, how could one of them be aware of things of which the other was not? Jesus, for instance, said regarding the time of the world’s judgment: “Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father.”—Mark 13:32.

2007-07-11 22:26:06 · answer #1 · answered by meg's 4 · 2 0

When Jesus ascended and went to heaven, He, God the Father, and the Holy Spirit united to form the Holy Trinity. I don't think that God stopped being God while Jesus was on earth, but God put in Jesus a spirit equal to His own. But Jesus IS the Living God. But it is a Holy Trinity made up of the three. Don't get me wrong: Jesus was just as divine when He was here on earth as He was after he ascended, but you remember the verses in which the Holy Spirit came upon the disciples? I believe that this show the signature of the Trinity.

2016-05-19 13:29:09 · answer #2 · answered by erminia 3 · 0 0

Because Jesus is not the Father. A son cannot be a father, it's illogical.

The Father has always been dominant over the Son, and eventually even the Son will submit completely to the Father:

"And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all" (1 Corinthians 15:28).

2007-07-11 07:00:57 · answer #3 · answered by enarchay 2 · 5 1

Yes...Jesus accepted as HE is the son of GOD not the almighty GOD. Since, u are reading Matthew 28:18, please continue to verse19 saying in the of the FATHER - which means there is one above HIM and that is the ONE (the father) who gave Jesus all authority.

2007-07-11 23:27:15 · answer #4 · answered by doods 2 · 2 0

Jesus emptied himself of the independent use of his Godly qualities while he was on earth. The Father was the authority about when those qualities would be used during this time.

Phil 2: 6-8 Though He was God, he did not demand and cling to his rights as God, etc.

2007-07-11 23:35:43 · answer #5 · answered by hodgiegirl2000 4 · 0 3

Do you really want the answer? Will you read what several people have pointed out to you?

He is called both Son of Man and Son of God for a reason. He is 100% God (John 20:28,29) and also 100% man. He is God in a man's body (Colossians 2:9) and has humbled himself (Phillippians 2:8).He humbled Himself from His authority. Made lower than the angels. Why did He humble Himself? His purpose in becoming man was to be OUR servant by taking on all of OUR sins and dying so that WE may be saved. (Hebrews 2:9)

Matthew 23:11,12
The greatest among you will be your servant. For whoever exalts himself will be humbled, and whoever humbles himself will be exalted.
__

You just told Schneb: Jesus was no longer human when he said all authority had been given him. He had already been resurrected fom the dead.

Besides the difference of beliefs we have in His resurrection, I would like to point out that Jesus had a authority as a human and most certainly before his death.

Matthew 7:29
because he taught as one who had authority, and not as their teachers of the law.

Matthew 9:6
But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins

Matthew 21:27
...Then he said, "Neither will I tell you by what authority I am doing these things.

Mark 1:27
The people were all so amazed that they asked each other, "What is this? A new teaching—and with authority! He even gives orders to evil spirits and they obey him."

I'm glad my reasoning is so laughable to you. I guess there is no point in my answering the rest of your questions since you will just tell me how laughable it is. Instead, I will pray for you. If anyone would actually like to know the real truth, please email me.

2007-07-11 08:52:58 · answer #6 · answered by ~♥Anna♥~ 5 · 0 5

there is not a single Scripture where Yhshua/Jesus is referred to as "Almighty"
only Christ's Father YHWH/Jehovah ever gets that title applied
Yhshua/Jesus has always and will always worship and be in subjection to YHWH/Jehovah

even after Christ's 1,000 year reign, while he is sitting at YHWH/Jehovah's right hand in spirit form, Yhshua/Jesus will subject himself to YHWH/Jehovah because they never have and never will be "equal" even though they are united as one in purpose.

1 Corinthians 15:24-28; then -- the end, when he may deliver up the reign to God, even the Father, when he may have made useless all rule, and all authority and power -- for it behoveth him to reign till he may have put all the enemies under his feet -- the last enemy is done away -- death; for all things He did put under his feet, and, when one may say that all things have been subjected, [it is] evident that He is excepted who did subject the all things to him, and when the all things may be subjected to him, then the Son also himself shall be subject to Him, who did subject to him the all things, that God may be the all in all.
(Young's Literal Translation)

agape!

.

2007-07-11 07:41:11 · answer #7 · answered by seeker 3 · 4 0

The bible makes is loud and clear that Jesus is his son. read colossians 1:15 ; john 3:16 ; john 14:26 ( describes what the holy spirit is) john 14:28
They are indeed two separate individuals

2007-07-11 07:00:55 · answer #8 · answered by IslandOfApples 6 · 5 1

Well you kind of enter into the question of the Trinity. If only God can have all authority in heaven and earth, and Jesus has it, but it was GIVEN to him, then somehow he is some sort of part of God but not God the Father himself.

Check out Isaiah 9:6 about the Messiah. "King of kings, prince of peace, almighty God"

2007-07-11 06:58:48 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Because He had to come to earth as a man so He could die for our sins. After He arose All power was given Him for now He is back in the form of God and is sitting on the right hand of God the Father. Colossians 3: 1 If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.

2007-07-11 07:00:08 · answer #10 · answered by Ray W 6 · 0 4

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