Do you think that the writers of the Bible knew about homosexuality as we do today?

Question

How many loving, committed monogamous homosexual couples do you think Paul knew of when he wrote Corinthians?

Considering the word homosexual wasn't even part of our vernacular until 1865, how do you think that this is addressed in the Bible? Isn't our current version of the Bible flawed to even use the word homosexual...when this word was not part of the language when the Bible was written?

Sure Soddom and Gomorrah talks about gang rape and inhospitality...but, does this have anything to do with homosexuals of today?

If you look at Leviticus and what it says about men laying with other men...you then have to look at what Leviticus says about wearing a cloth of more than one fiber...or women not entering the church during their menstrual period...all things written about because of customs of the day.

II Timothy 3:16 says the Bible is inspired by God..but, remember it was written by humans, who brought into their writings their own prejudices, ideas, customs and

education...many times the writers were finally putting down stories that were handed down verbally from generation to generation.

Remember God is infallable...men are not.

One other point...is that it was important in Biblical days for wealth, and protection to have a big family...so, of course it would be encouraged for people to procreate...another reason why it was looked down upon to be with a man.

Answer 1

You are absolutely right.

One person who responds to you cites the story of Sodom and Gomorrah as "proof" that God detests homosexuality. What has always been interesting to me about this story is that the men surrounding Lot's house did not want to marry the angels nor date them nor have dinner with them nor give them engagement rings...rather they wanted to rape them. What does rape have to do with two gay people who love each other? Same-sex rape was a way of humiliating and insulting one's enemies in biblical times, not showing affection.

The other more important point is that in every other place in the Bible that references the sins of Sodom (and there are many references) not ONE mentions homosexuality. Not one! If homosexuality were a reason to destroy two cities, it would only seem reasonable to expect it to be listed in other places in the Bible. Listed examples of the sins of Sodom include inhospitality, not taking care of the poor, orphans and widows, etc.

But hey, why let facts mess up a good anti-gay rant?!? ; )

Answer 2

Actually two angels were sent to soddom the word soddomy (anal sex is derived from this) the soddomites wanted the angels (in a carnal sense) lot refused and offered his daughters in place but the people refused hence forth the angels threw the door open and blinded the men and told lot and his family to leave the reason god had sent the angels is because of the soddomites homosexual practices if a duck was called a quack it would still be a duck, just called a quack the writers of the bible were well aware of homosexuality a rose by any other name is still a rose and yes homosexuality is a sin you dont have to accept this but it is, and god destroyed the city of soddom man had nothing to do with it angels were sent to find any who were worthy of life and only found lot and his wife god destroyed the soddomites what does that tell you about gods opinion of homosexuals soddomites?

Answer 3

You make a good point. The only doubt I have is John 10:35. Jesus says, "...and the Scripture cannot be broken." However, he could have just be outsmarting the Pharisees... but every word Jesus said was crafted by the flawless Father. Also, it is important to note that maybe it's not being gay. It could be the idea of gay sex, and if that is true, possibly the idea of sex for reasons other than having children. I don't know if that is correct or not. I'm not an expert on those verses...
I think one gay person my dad knows made a good point. He said that few would chose to be gay. Who would want to be persecuted and miss the opportunity of a family? He said that he just was gay, like we just are straight... I don't have a great answer for you.

Answer 4

In ancient cultures, views and practices varied, but an *exclusively* homosexual orientation and "gay subculture" was practically non-existent. Even in Greece, where male beauty and homosexual union was *celebrated,* a man would still, under ordinary circumstances, be expected to marry and produce children.

Family, kinclan, and community were a much larger part of a person's identity, and the responsibility to continue the family line was taken very seriously. But I think probably we have enough people NOW, and can afford to let the 3-4% of humans born with a sexual orientation toward their own gender off the hook where breeding duties are concerned. :-)

Some people have . . . issues. And nothing sanctifies one's personal issues like putting words in your god's mouth.

Answer 5

Don't they teach history anymore ? The Greeks and the Romans openly practiced homosexuality, it was an integral part of their culture. Granted there were specific rules about who was allowed to do what to who based upon social class but it was openly practiced.
Quoting Leviticus is totally bogus and insincere. If you're going to believe in the truth of Leviticus then don't believe in some of it ,believe in all of it and keep a kosher household

Answer 6

I feel quite sure they knew about homosexuals, abortions, murder, pediophiles, etc, etc.
Society really has not changed, how we communicate, living conditions, transportation, education and so on has. Society is made of people and we really have not improved.......what is deemed acceptable throughout history continually changes.

It will not always be as it is today.......smoking is a classic example. Smoking in public places, and most offices is banned today, just 25 years ago, it was highly acceptable and at one point in history, it was even encouraged.............

Gay rights, civil unions, coming out of the closet, and other terms were not used in Bibilical times, but they knew............

Answer 7

The old testament is not the only place that it mentions men laying with men, it is clear from the bible that homosexuality is a sin. Maybe they didn't use that exact terminology but it is still clear. Read Romans 1:26 "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abondoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and recieved in themselves the due penalty for their perversion. " The word" homosexuality" is not used there, but I think we get the picture.

Answer 8

Just a point, when the Bible says about men lying with men, the consiquences of this action is much more harsh than the punishment for mixing fibres, this should be taken into consideration. I dont hate gays at all.. but I just dont think it can be compared with mixing fibres since the law did not require you to kill someone who did. If a man lay with a man, they were both to be killed, just like adulterers, witches, people who had sex with animals, and so on. I do believe we are not to hate or kill gays but, we arent given the go-ahead to condone it.

Answer 9

The ancients were more into homosexuality than today's society, of course they knew about it.

The only reason many cultures banned it was that they thought you had a set amount of semen when you were born (similar to the truism of egg cells).

Answer 10

The writers of the Bible of course knew nothing of life today. That's what makes it so ridiculous to any sane person.