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In French, are the words parlerais, parlerai, parlaient pronounced the same?

2007-07-10 09:50:03 · 9 answers · asked by Aida 3 in Society & Culture Languages

I have a book entitled 'Pronouncing French Perfectly' and it says that parlerai should be pronounced with the 'e' in egg while parlerais should be pronounced like 'ay' without the y.

I find it hard to hear a difference. Is it really obvious?

Also: Fait and fais should be feh instead of fay?

2007-07-11 03:25:09 · update #1

9 answers

Sorry to have to contradict previous entries , but "parlerais" (conditional present tense) and "parlerai" (future indicative tense) are both pronounced in exactly the same way: parl-erh-ray.( think of the second note in "Do, re, mi). The presence of an s at the end of the word makes no difference.
"parlaient" (past imperfect tense) is pronounced: parlay (as in "lay brother" in UK English or as the e of egg depending on the region, but there is so little difference it is hardly noticeable and not really something to worry about).

"fais" and "fait" are pronounced as feh (as in Morgan la Fey.)

I guess the disagreements in opinion are due to the differences between the way the English words are pronounced in various states of America.

2007-07-10 13:28:25 · answer #1 · answered by WISE OWL 7 · 0 1

Parlerai and parlerais are pronounced exactly the same way...
Parlaient (along with parlais and parlait) is prononouced par-le (an "e" as in egg)...

2007-07-11 07:53:46 · answer #2 · answered by i_luv_canada 3 · 0 1

a million) J'adore ma merveilleuse vie. 2) J'adore cette vie merveilleuse. 3) Ma vie est merveilleuse et je l'adore. Edit: Oups: thumbed down! I admit that my first sentence desires slightly a intonation to sound ok (insist on "merveilleuse"), inverting dwells on the "astonishing" high quality of my life. yet, it sort of feels to me that "ma vie merveilleuse" is preposterous, as in case you meant you had a number of lives and you mentioned which you like the amazing one. in addition to, "astonishing" isn't some "outward" or specifying high quality to a minimum of one's very own life, that's an important high quality, subsequently: adjective located formerly the noun. Sentences 2 and 3 do not decide for specific intonation. 2 might nicely be inverted too yet might then decide for emphasis whilst mentioned. To me, 3 is the least complicated one in French, besides the indisputable fact that it is much less concise than the English one: you won't be in a position to have a cake...

2016-09-29 11:24:33 · answer #3 · answered by threat 4 · 0 0

Ask Sir Kermit.

2007-07-10 09:51:54 · answer #4 · answered by Whiskey Tango Foxtrot 4 · 1 0

No:

parlerais ends with the sound [e] as in 'hen'
parlerai ends with the sound [e] as in 'hay/hey' (sort of - but no diphthong)
parlaient is [parle] with that 'hen' sound again.

Difficult to describe unless you know the IPA.

2007-07-10 09:57:11 · answer #5 · answered by JJ 7 · 4 1

Who cares. Do you know how the french army drills? They all run around with their hands over their heads in a surrendering position.

2007-07-10 09:54:47 · answer #6 · answered by Chalie M 4 · 0 3

par-ler-eh
par-ler-i (as in the actual word I)
par-lay-en (don't pronounce the t at the end of the french word)

2007-07-10 14:41:09 · answer #7 · answered by «Brooklyn♥09» 3 · 0 2

yes it is just the matter of gender.

2007-07-10 09:52:38 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

no...it's like this:

parlerais=parl +(make your mouth like ,,o'' and say ,,e,,) +re
parlerai=The same as parlerais
parlaient=parle

Hope I helped you

2007-07-10 09:55:27 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

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