"When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment." (Exodus 21:7-11 NLT)
2007-07-10 05:42:33 · 14 answers · asked by Yank 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Quote from a bold warrior hee, "The Law of Moses applies to Jews, not to Christians (Acts 15)"
Unless, of course, it's convenient for a Fundy argument, then it's smack back to the OT, which was, of course, either written or inspired by God, which is, of course, part of the Christian bible...you know, the one written or inspired by your god.
2007-07-10 05:54:23 · update #1
That God guy sure is a sweetheart.
2007-07-10 05:46:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
The Law of Moses applies to Jews, not to Christians (Acts 15). You are making fun of the wrong religion.
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I sort of got you on a technically, I know. But your lack of knowledge about what makes for a "good Christian" implies that you are not seriously looking for knowledge, nor are you trying to make a valid point about our religion; you are obviously here just to mock people with beliefs different than your own.
Why should we listen to you, or even give your rhetorical statement even a moment's thought?
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According to the Bible, the Apostles debated whether any of the laws of the Old Testament applied to gentile Christians under the New Covenant. They eventually decided that only the laws that were purely moral in nature still applied to the gentiles; the laws which merely served to set Israel apart as a nation were no longer needed (i.e.; they were either "fulfilled" or were now defunct by virtue of the fact that the Nation of Israel no longer existed) and really were never intended to apply the gentiles (non-Jews) anyway. So it is not the "fundies" who cherry pick the Old Testament to decide which laws to obey and which ones to ignore; it was Jesus and the Apostles themselves (Mark 7; Galatians 5; for examples). So you are actually criticizing Jesus, Peter, and Paul, not the "fundies".
2007-07-10 12:49:32 · answer #2 · answered by Randy G 7 · 2⤊ 3⤋
I'm sure you will hear from all the Christians that Exodus was a set of laws for the people back then and once Jesus came he did away with all the old laws and established new ones for them to follow. And by the way poligamy is legal in those countries so who cares. What man wouldn't want a whole harem of women at his beck and call?
2007-07-10 12:50:22 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
lol dude thats fake.
And in case a man should sell his daughter as a slave girl, she will not go out in the way that the slave men go out. if she is displeasing in the eyes of her master, so that he does not designate her as a concubine, nut causes her to be redeemed he will not be entitled to sell her to a foreign people in his treacherously dealing with her. and if it should be to his son that he designates her, he is to do her according to the due right of daughters. and if he should take another wife for himself, her sustenance, her clothing and her marriage due are not to be diminished. if he will not render these three things to her, then she must go out for nothing, without money.
2007-07-10 12:53:53 · answer #4 · answered by ITALLIAN STALLION 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not only does that passage support daughters as slaves, but it condones polygamy in the form of multiple wives. "If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife."
That book is just chock full of immoral behaviour.
2007-07-10 12:47:25 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
This passage is from the laws of a government long dead.
Moses gave these laws to Israel a very long time ago.
Besides, Christians follows the teachings of Christ.
Christ taught to love one another.....how does slavery propel this thinking?
2007-07-10 12:51:40 · answer #6 · answered by Hekler 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What is the point of this question? Are you referring to all Christians, or just certain Biblical literalists? Because most of us regard that passage as nonsense.
FYI: that law was likely written to moderate some practices that were even worse. We need to know the context in which it was written. For example, the Hammurabi (sp?) code 'eye for an eye' law was not written to justify vengeance, but to limit it "take no more than an eye for an eye."
2007-07-10 12:48:10 · answer #7 · answered by mr_fartson 7 · 0⤊ 4⤋
what a shame huh?
we can see at least 3 things automatically and detestably immoral without even thinking too much.
yep, that'd be the "christian thing" to do but don't assume that makes it right.
2007-07-10 12:50:19 · answer #8 · answered by jess 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
That was law for the Jews, so you should really be asking, "Wouldn't it be the Jewish thing to do, to sell my daughters into slavery."
You wouldn't dare do that, however, because you would be accused of Antisemitism. So, instead, being the coward you are, you decide to pick on Christians.
2007-07-10 12:49:02 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 4⤋
Don't sweat it. Exodus is old testament. I would ask a Rabbi what he thinks.
2007-07-10 12:53:06 · answer #10 · answered by krupsk 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋