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Are they in some way, related to you?

2007-07-09 16:18:50 · 8 answers · asked by Katie 3 in Arts & Humanities Genealogy

8 answers

Not necessarily. There was a time when people did not have surnames. It wasn't until the 12 or 13th century in England before they took surnames. In southern Europe it was a little earlier.

In England, they took their names based on being the son of someone, their occupation, the habitation, or some characteristic.

There was a man named John who had 4 sons, Henry,George, Sam and Robert.

Henry was known as Henry son of John and if he could write that is how he signed his name. He became Henry Johnson, but a lot of fellas named John had sons and they also took the name Johnson or Jones.

George was a blacksmith. He was known as George the Blacksmith or George the Smith and he became George Smith, but a lot of men in his occuupation or silversmith, goldsmith, tinsmiths whatever became Smith.

Sam's name is brought up quite frequently.
He lived on a hill and became Sam Hill but he wasn't the only one living on or near a hill that took the name Hill. My maternal grandmother's mother was an Overton which simply means over town. Can't you imagine how many guys living over a town became Overton.

Robert was stout and was known as Robert the Stout and he became Robert Stout. He wasn't the only person stout that took the name Stout.

So you see 4 men all with the same father who took different surnames but others also took those surnames that were no way related to each other.

You didn't ask for a meaning or origin of a name but the link below from the Naitonal Genealogical Society might be useful.

http://www.ngsgenealogy.org/comconsumerpsst.cfm

2007-07-09 17:43:20 · answer #1 · answered by Shirley T 7 · 1 0

Usually not. The last name "Johnson", for instance, means "son of John". The original John could have been English, Polish, German, Scot, French . . .

(Lots of men changed their name from "Johansen" to "Johnson" when they came to the USA or Australia, so their neighbors could spell it.)

"Miller" means the man who ran the mill, "Smith" the man who ran the smithy. There aren't many people named "Farmer" because that would not help you distinguish which "Michael" you meant; 95% of all the Michaels in a given town were farmers. Calling the red-headed one, son of John, who lived by the river "Micheal Farmer" would be like saying "He is the Chinese with straight black hair" or "He is the Swede with blue eyes". So, Michael became Michael the Red, or Michael Johnson, or Michael Rivers.

There are some last names that mean "From the village of xyz". Most people with those last names are related, somehow or other, sometimes.

Remember too that you have 16 great great grandparents, with 14 - 16 surnames, depending on how many of your ancestors married cousins. For someone to be related to you and have the same last name, his/her father would have to be the son of the son of the son . . . just like your father is.

15/16ths of your relations don't have your last name, on average.

2007-07-09 16:37:39 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

My last name is Smith, so most probably not. Smith is the most common surname in the United States, Canada, England, Scotland, Australia, and New Zealand, representing one in every hundred people in these English-speaking countries.

Of course, sometimes an unusual name points the way to a common ancestry.

2007-07-09 17:34:51 · answer #3 · answered by Ellie Evans-Thyme 7 · 1 0

doe not have to be, sometimes people change there last name, and that does not mean you are related to that person, i have had that experience but no you are not related 80% of the time.

2007-07-09 16:27:10 · answer #4 · answered by jon s 3 · 0 0

nope not usually there are tons of people with the same last name and not related.

2007-07-09 16:26:23 · answer #5 · answered by dsgirl 1 · 1 0

Not always.
You would have to research who they are related to, to see if any of them are related to you somehow.

2007-07-09 16:26:28 · answer #6 · answered by amanda 2 · 0 0

Probably not. Sometimes if the name is very unique it is possible. I've researched a good few of those in the US.

2007-07-09 17:08:25 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

of course not .its just a coincidence(not spelled right..i know)

2007-07-09 16:27:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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