In all my years in churches, I have never heard it referred to as Revelation to John. John was the writer and it was john that according to legend had his friend Polycarp to take the book to the seven churches of Asia. It has been called the Revelation from John or of John but never to John.
It has also been called the revelation to the seven churches. According to John himself he was on the ile of Patmos and an angel form God appeared to him and gave him this Revelation to write down and sen it to the seven churches.
But to answer your question, I do not believe all the things written there, although like all prophecies there are some things that did come to pass like the great persecution of Christians that modern Christians mistake as in the future, but John said that these things MUST SHORTLY COME TO PASS. How can shortly mean over 2,000 years?
the description of Christians not being able to buy or sell without the so called mark of the beast is an accurate description of the events during the Roman persecution. Some believe it is so accurate that Revelation was written not by John in 90 A.D. but by someone after the fact writing down past events pretending to be John writing future events.
BB
2007-07-09 00:21:05
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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There are as many interpretations of the book of Revelation as there are people reading it IMO. However, the main classes of interpretation that I know of are as follows:
1. The book deals with events "that must soon take place" (Rev 1:1). It starts off dealing with the same issues as Mark 13, namely, the destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans and the Christian's escape to Pella. It then continues with the Roman Empire's persecution of Christians and the eventual fall of Rome. It closes with the final triumph over evil on Judgement Day and a vision of the eternal home of those who are saved. So only the last bit is eschatological.
2. The book presents the gospel message of salvation through faith in Christ and the ultimate triumph of God and his people even in the face of opposition from evil. It does so by means of symbols and images. This interpretation seeks to apply the teaching of Revelation to every age. Again, only the last bit is eschatological.
3. The book is a prophecy that speaks of the last ages. It was presented in code that only people in the last days will be able to understand and decipher. With this interpretation (or set of varying interpretations, since they all vary in speculative details) is mostly eschatological.
The main problem with the futurist view is why would God present a book that is only intelligible to a people living during a short specific period of time, when in fact two intelligible classes of interpretation can be made that apply to everyone? So I tend to disfavour that view.
Having said that, it is often seen in other Bible prophecy that there is both a contemporary and a future fulfilment. There is no reason why some of the prophecies about Roman persecution, for instance, do not apply in some yet unforseen way to a future persecution by a godless empire. However, we must be aware that any specific interpretations are speculative and conjectural.
2007-07-09 00:29:26
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answer #2
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answered by Raichu 6
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The book of revelation was written by John the Baptist.
Starting at revelation 12 to the end of this book, is the true story of the seven Ages. From chapter 1 to 11 is a more detailed look at the last 3 Ages.
Most will never understand this book, because they do not understand God the Father's truth.
You must clearly understand who the beast is, Jesus told you.
2007-07-11 13:05:37
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I have always taken more of a historical-critical approach to it. I think if we look at it too much as a futuristic eschatology, we miss the realized eschatology of it.
My 2 cents! I'll tell you more if you give me a dime.
Matt
2007-07-09 01:39:51
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answer #4
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answered by mattfromasia 7
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Sticking with a dictionary definition-----yes.
I don't like wikipedia. It can be tainted by on line members.
Anyway, the Revelation to John does have the future written.
Most of it's prophecy's have been fulfilled and there are a few left we are anxiously awaiting.
2007-07-09 01:23:16
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answer #5
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answered by rangedog 7
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Yes.
(Revelation 1:1-2) A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. And he sent forth his angel and presented [it] in signs through him to his slave John, 2 who bore witness to the word God gave and to the witness Jesus Christ gave, even to all the things he saw.
THINGS THAT MUST TAKE PLACE...THE FUTURE.
2007-07-09 00:43:21
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answer #6
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answered by pugjw9896 7
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If you see it, it is there.
2007-07-09 00:02:04
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answer #7
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answered by kwistenbiebel 5
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Yes, metaphorically speaking though
2007-07-09 00:00:48
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answer #8
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answered by deleriumbliss 4
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I believe so.
2007-07-09 00:05:50
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answer #9
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answered by Serena 5
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No, but then I am an atheist.
2007-07-09 00:03:14
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answer #10
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answered by in a handbasket 6
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