...do people in coma sin? They don't do anything except sleep and get nutrients from IVs. Or are there just exceptions...?
2007-07-08 11:10:03 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
A person in a comma cannot be sinning. A sin is committed by a physical action, mental thought, and by the tongue. A person in a comma can't do anything physically, can't think (although that's questionable...but I doubt it would be any thoughts that cause them to sin), or speak.
And for those that don't believe in the bible then you really shouldn't be answering these questions as this is not the answer the person is looking for. If you can't edify someone, then don't speak at all!
2007-07-08 11:34:33 · answer #1 · answered by Maggie E 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
chances are if they get out of the coma the first thing they'll do is sin. cos that's what people do, when they are deprived for a long time of pleasure, that the first thing they seek when free to do do. however, if they die then whatever sins they did before the coma will be taken into consideration... so it's not an escape, unless they get outta the coma and never sin again after that... not easy being perfect.
2007-07-08 18:14:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No people in coma do not sin. No one sins ever. Sin is just a stupid made up religious device. People don't sin. People do wrongs but not every day. Many things Christians consider to be sin are harmless and not even wrongs. This is a stupid game they play branding people sinners when they haven't did anything wrong.
Kisses Betty B.
2007-07-08 18:20:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think the Bible says that people sin every day. It says we are all sinners and we always will be. We are sinners by nature because we all descended from Adam and Eve. If someone is in a coma, they wouldn't be actively sinning, but they would still be a sinner. If you've ever told a lie, you're a sinner - even if you never tell another one.
2007-07-08 18:15:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
People in Comas to my knowledge are not capable of sinning; however, what the Bible was refering to was the norm, not the exception.
The Bible is not always literal, if it was always literal than why did Jesus talk in parables?
For example, Jesus spoke of it being easier for a camel to go through the eye of "the" needle, than for a rich man to go to heaven; was Christ saying that a rich man can not go to heaven?; since a camel cannot go through the eye of "a" needle? No, Jesus was not talking about a literal sewing needle, He was talking about a loop hole in the wall at Jerusalem in Israel. There is a small passageway in the wall at Jerusalem only big enough for a camle to just barely get in or out of the city. Chirst was saying that it was as easy for a rich man to go to heaven as it is for a camel to get through the tiny passage in the wall at Jerusalem. In other words a rich mna could go to heavn, but it would be much harder for him than a poor, humble person. Jesus was not literal here in this example, he was teaching in a parable as he always did.
The Bible is first a historical record, second a religious text. The Bible is full of analogies/parables, stories fiction and non fiction, honor, dishonor, good and bad, the list goes on!
We should view the Bible for what it is and not paint a picture of what we think it "should' be!
Christians us eteh Bible strictly as a religious text, but it wasn't just religious, it was a journal of the live sof those who lived then, AND, their insights regarding religion or the revelations God gave them as pertaining to the things of God; which the obediant where quick to write down in the Bible text. In the original Bible text in Hebrew. The English text has many mistakes which scholars have excluded precious truthes from the Bible to fit the political and religious clime of the day in which they lived. These same scholasr added there own stuff to it also.
For example; in the Hebrew text of the Bible there is no Book of James. The book was orginally called the book of Jacob (in the Hebrew text). Why then do we have James? The answer is because the scholasr who were employed by King James of England wanted to honor their earthly King instead of leaving the Bible alone and not fiddle with it. They wanted to honor a king on earth instead of God, the only real King!
2007-07-08 18:36:40 · answer #5 · answered by jackmcdonald7 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sin is not a question of right and wrong bible scholars. To sin means to miss the mark... As to like throwing a dart and missing the targeted area. Sin is beyond disobedience..
LOVE
2007-07-08 18:29:41 · answer #6 · answered by mindelevator777 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, perhaps you should read the bible before making declarations of its contents. Nowhere, in any version of the bible does it say that everyone sins everyday. Research your questions more thoroughly.
2007-07-08 18:16:28 · answer #7 · answered by s;ajf;lakjsd;f 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Humans are sinful by nature. It is a product of the fall of our original parents. So while we may do our best not to do anything wrong... even succeed, we are still sinners.
2007-07-08 18:24:05 · answer #8 · answered by Q&A Queen 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible doesn't say we sin every day.............the Bible says that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.
We all need a Savior....................and when the Holy Spirit enters our life (when we are born again) - His presence gives us power to overcome sin. But, we're not perfect - even Paul spoke of striving for perfection.
A person in a coma is not sinning..............
2007-07-08 18:13:49 · answer #9 · answered by fanofchan 6 · 4⤊ 2⤋
i doubt people in comas sin
2007-07-08 18:20:15 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋