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I am a "native English speaker" but I don't understand this. I know "explain me" sounds weird but grammatically what's wrong with it? Or is it correct?

2007-07-08 09:50:09 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

7 answers

Some verbs (such as show; also give, tell, offer, buy) take two objects, the first one indirect--the "beneficiary" of the action, and the second direct--the "acted upon".

Other verbs take only one object, direct--the "acted upon". Some of these, including explain (and say, describe) may have a beneficiary, but that beneficiary has to be introduced by a prepostion (to or sometimes for), and as such goes after the direct object.

Many other verbs have a direct object but no beneficiary (kick, eat) and still others have no object, but may (wave, nod) or may not (walk, sleep) have a beneficiary.

But there's nothing really to "understand". It's pretty much arbitrary which type of verb which is. (Especially tell and say--that's the ONLY difference between them.)

2007-07-08 10:27:12 · answer #1 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 0 0

Usage says it's not correct, and that's that. It sounds "weird" to you because you know native speakers don't say that.

Unless they're consciously imitating Ricky Ricardo of "I Love Lucy." In that case "Explain me the equation" is only mispronounced; correctly, it's:
'Splain me the equation

Yes, that's a joke, son, but it makes my point. There's nothing illogical about the construction, but in current English "explain" can't take an indirect object, so you have to say "explain the equation to me."

For a more nearly native case, with a much more common verb, UK people can say, "He gave it me," while US people have to say "He gave it to me." (I'm not sure if the US version is wrong for UK people, less favored, or an acceptable alternative.)

I wish I could remember a case where this has changed over time--that is, a verb has either picked up the ability to take an indirect object or lost it--but I'm almost willing to bet that there are a few.

And please do NOT ask why! Linguists know that language changes, and in some cases we can actually tell you why. (When it's massive change, it's usually foreign influence.) But mostly we're just as baffled for reasons as anybody else, and we try not to let that fact bother us.

P.S. The Answers that try to explain the difference by pointing out differences in meaning between "explain" and "show" are simply off base. This is a case of usage, not logic.

2007-07-08 10:08:02 · answer #2 · answered by georgetslc 7 · 1 0

i do no longer incredibly think of that the priority is "telling" right here. it incredibly is the comprehensive loss of any description. the place is this occurring - a bare white room? different than for the colors, what do those human beings look like? What do they sound like? Are they status, sitting, surprising from the ceiling? what's out of the window? who's "I"? Why does not she get presented on the initiating? And, heavily, forget a "pronunciation handbook" and lose the cat-walked-over-the-keyboard names. they do no longer upload something to it and that they make it severely perplexing to study. Edit: Molly, she's writing fiction. I have not any theory how a uncomplicated essay technique is meant to help.

2016-09-29 08:01:51 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I believe it is because the verb "to explain" must be followed by a direct object (in the case, "the equation") THEN by the indirect object ("to me"). The verb "to show" can go either way. "Show me the poster/show the poster to me." The English language is very complicated. I teach language for a living (French/Spanish) and both of those languages are much more logical in their grammar, with French being the easiest of the two.

2007-07-08 09:58:07 · answer #4 · answered by catherine 4 · 0 0

You've got a very good point.

In some languages, their equivalent form of "me" is also used to mean "to me." On that same note, "show to me the poster" sounds off as well.

I suppose you could say that show is a reflexive verb, while explain doesn't have to be. For example. you can say "Let me explain." and "I've been explaing all day!" without actually saying to whom you or what you are explaining. Show, however, is always tied to the person/item receiving the action (the direct object). "Let me show." and "I've been shoing all day!" don't sound right because they have no direct object.

Hope that helps :-D

2007-07-08 09:59:51 · answer #5 · answered by Jonny aus den USA 2 · 0 0

You wouldn't say "explain me the equation" for the same reason that you wouldn't say "explain me the poster." However, it is appropriate to say "show me the equation."

Your question is like comparing "apples to oranges."

2007-07-08 10:00:18 · answer #6 · answered by ruski 1 · 0 0

As with so many questions about why things are such a way in *any* language, many times the answer is: Because that's the way it's said :-)

2007-07-08 11:07:57 · answer #7 · answered by Diana 7 · 0 0

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