Religion has nothing to do with race.
You're both from Abraham
Edit: Are you a blond Semite?
2007-07-06 09:34:28
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answer #1
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answered by 1Netzari 4
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In a religious context, the term Semitic can refer to the religions associated with the speakers of these languages: thus Judaism, Christianity and Islam are often described as "Semitic religions," though the term Abrahamic religions is more commonly used today. A truly comprehensive account of "Semitic" religions would include the polytheistic Ancient Semitic religions in the Middle East before the Abrahamic religions.
I guess it depends on the context.
2007-07-06 16:38:38
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answer #2
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answered by easyericlife 4
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Well, Semitic does not mean Jewish, but today it is almost always used in reference to Jews. In middle school Social Studies, we were taught (many years ago) it meant all people from the Middle East.
"1881, from Ger. Antisemitismus, first used by Wilhelm Marr in 1880, from anti- + Semite . Not etymologically restricted to anti-Jewish theories, actions or policies, but almost always used in this sense.
Those who object to the inaccuracy of the term might try H. Adler's Judaeophobia (1882)."
2007-07-06 16:46:07
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answer #3
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answered by SpongebobRoundpants 5
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Semitic
In linguistics and ethnology, Semitic (from the Biblical "Shem", Hebrew: ש×, translated as "name", Arabic: ساÙ
) was first used to refer to a language family of largely Middle Eastern origin, now called the Semitic languages. This family includes the ancient and modern forms of Amharic, Arabic, Aramaic, Akkadian, Ge'ez, Hebrew, Maltese, Tigrinya, etc.
Semitic Totality Concept
The Semitic Totality Concept is a teaching found within the majority of Judaism and some sects of Christianity that attempts to explain the link between the body and the soul.
The link, proponents say, is that the two are a unity that are not separable (or, in Christianity, separable only upon death). Other aspects (such as the one about faith and good works) says that something that exists only in one part (body or soul) is useless or vain unless it also plays a part in the other. Therefore, faith, which exists in the soul, must be coupled with good works in order to be fully understood and used. However, something that is done without the soul playing a part (like Ecclesiaste's and its search for God-less pleasure) is without use (i.e., The Teacher's shout of "Meaningless! Meaningless!" in Ecclesiastes 1) in this philosophy.
Semitic gods and goddesses
Semitic gods refers to the gods or deities of peoples generally classified as speaking a Semitic language. As Semitic itself is a rough, categorical term, the definitive bounds of the term "Semitic gods" are likewise only approximate.
A topic of particular interest is the transition of Semitic polytheism into our contemporary understanding of monotheism by way of the god El, a name of the god of Judaism and cognate to Islam's Allah.
Scholars have speculated that the "transition" from polytheism to monotheism was likely a form of theological supremacy — by which the theology of a supreme deity, the "One God," naturally grew from the supremacy of a particular culture to which that "One God" was favorable toward. (See covenant.) Thus, as the culture and people expanded, their monotheistic beliefs and specific God was carried with them.
Semitic languages
The Semitic languages are a family of languages spoken by more than 200 million people across much of the Middle East, North Africa and East Africa. They constitute the northeastern subfamily of the Afro-Asiatic languages, and the only branch of this group spoken in Asia.
The most widely spoken Semitic language today is Arabic (206 million speakers), followed by Amharic (27 million speakers), Hebrew (7 million speakers), and Tigrinya (6.75 million speakers). Semitic languages were among the earliest to attain a written form, with Akkadian writing beginning in the middle of the third millennium BC. The term "Semitic" for these languages, after Shem son of Noah, is etymologically a misnomer in some ways (see Semitic), but is nonetheless standard.
2007-07-06 16:39:04
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answer #4
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answered by Dark Angel 3
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No, Semite refers to a large group of people including, Arabs, Arameans, Babylonians, Carthaginians, Ethiopians, Hebrews, and Phoenicians. Not just Arabs, not just Jews. You are just as wrong in your observation as a person claiming that only Jews are Semites.
2007-07-06 16:35:05
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Tecnhically, semetic does not mean Arabic or Jewish, as it's the common ancestor of both. You and the Jews both came from one group, the Semetic peoples, who split some 4,000 years ago (as far back as we can trace linguistically).
2007-07-06 16:34:24
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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When Europeans were waging their pogroms, Jews were the only Semitic people they had much contact with.
Trust me, if it had been Muslims there rather than Jews, the pogroms still would have happened and they still would have been anti-Semitic.
Always look to the history of usage of a term, not just its literal meaning.
2007-07-06 16:42:06
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answer #7
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answered by The angels have the phone box. 7
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what context have you seen jewish people calling arabs antisemeitc?
Semetic is really just the nationality of the whole middle eastern type races.
yes, the term "semite" has come to, for most people, refer to jews.
but you are way too paranoid if you actually think "The Jews" caused this to happen somehow on purpose.
2007-07-06 16:37:11
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answer #8
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answered by RW 6
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Actually no, the words "Semite and Semitic" do not have their origins in Arabs, (not the people, their religion, nor their language). Semite origins refer to Hebrew/Jewish bloodlines of today that descended from Shem, Noah's oldest son, & the son God Almighty said would be the father of the Jewish people. Just as God Almighty named Ham, the middle son of Noah, to be Caanan and said he would be the father of the Black Race. Just as God Almighty named Japheth, the youngest son of Noah, to be the Father of the Gentile Race.
The term Semite was proposed at first to refer to the languages related to Hebrew by Ludwig Schlözer, in Eichhorn's "Repertorium", vol. VIII (Leipzig, 1781), p. 161. Through Eichhorn the name then came into general usage (cf. his "Einleitung in das Alte Testament" (Leipzig, 1787), I, p. 45. In his "Gesch. der neuen Sprachenkunde", pt. I (Göttingen, 1807) it had already become a fixed technical term. (The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume XIII)
The word "Semitic" is an adjective derived from Shem, one of the three sons of Noah in the Bible (Genesis 5.32, 6.10, 10.21), or more precisely from the Greek derivative of that name, namely Σημ (SÄm); the noun form referring to a Jewish person as Semite. The negative form of the adjective, anti-Semitic, is almost always used to mean "anti-Jewish" specifically.
As you can see, the Jewish people did not "coin" (create) this word, it was Greeks/Romans ethnology scholars of Rome & Greece who did so.
The concept of a "Semitic" peoples is derived from Biblical accounts of the origins of the cultures known to the ancient Hebrews. Those closest to them in culture and language were generally deemed to be descended from their forefather Shem, the Father of the Jewish race.
Actually the word "Muslim" is not of ethnology (race related) but refers to a religion. Namely a religion whose people belief in Allah, the prophet Mohammed, and The Qu'ran/Koran.
The Muslim religion has its roots in Canaan. The land now known as Africa, where Ham and his wife were banished to after being cursed by God & Noah for Ham's disrespect and dishonor.
Ham never returned, was never reunited, and never attempted to mend the shameful breach Ham created between to his brothers nor his father and mother and not God Almighty.
I find it amazing and yet so sad that the inherent emnity Muslims have for the Jewish people and Gentile people ALL has its origins in Ham's sin against God and his father Noah, and the breach Ham willingly placed between, and Ham's anger and enmity for his brothers Shem (Jewish) and Japheth (The Gentiles).
Thankfully Jesus Christ's sacrifice paid the price on Calvary for ALL mankinds past, present, and future sins & Jesus became the only acceptable and eternal "breach-mender" between God and man...and Jesus' willing death on Calvary for us ALSO offered the destruction & obliteration of God's curse upon Ham's descendants.
2007-07-06 17:43:35
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answer #9
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answered by faith 5
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why has the term "martial arts" come to mean only unarmed combat when in reality it comes from the root phrase (english translated) the arts of mars, mars the roman god of war?
2007-07-06 16:32:56
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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