what did it mean when jesus (god) said, "my god my god why have you forsaken me?"
does this mean your god has a god above him?
if jesus is god then god was crying out to another god... =\
if not, explain...?
2007-07-06 09:11:19 · 21 answers · asked by Chippy v1.0.0.3b 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I don't believe Jesus was God or anything...
but Jesus is said to be the SON of God....so he was calling his father. Confusing, ain't it?
2007-07-06 09:15:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
yes, the Bible teaches that God is 1 not 3.
scripture teaches that God alone made the world.
1:3 - All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
john 1:10 says, He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
who was in the world?? Jesus
who made the world?? this scripture says Jesus did.
who did the world not know?? Jesus
the One God of the OT is the One God of the NT & His name is Jesus.
scripture says that Jesus was fully God, yet fully man.
Jesus had a physical nature b/c He had a body, yet His spiritual nature was fully God in Spirit.
this means that Jesus Christ had 2 distinct natures that no human being has ever had. the Bible does not describe in detail how the 2 natures of Christ were joined together in the body of Jesus, but scripture does prove that both natures existed together in Him...
so we must accept this as true.
we can understand the result w/o completely understanding the process through which it happened.
remember, 1 tim.3:16 says "God was manifest in the flesh".
this tells us that Jesus was God.
if you don't believe that is true, then you don't believe the Bible is true.
if the Spirit of God had not become flesh, God would have had no blood to shed for mankind.
you cannot separate the 2 natures of Jesus Christ into "separate & co-equal persons".
this statement would mean that there are 2 separate persons... making 2 dieties.
scripture says that "the LORD our GOD is ONE" ... not 2 or 3.
col.2:9 speaking of Jesus Christ says, "for in him dwelleth all the fulness of hte Godhead bodily."
this says that the Father, Son & Holy Ghost is in the body of Jesus Christ.
if you don't believe that God is One, then you can't believe the Bible is true.
when on the cross Jesus prayed, "my God, my God why have you forsaken me?"
it was b/c His human side needed to pray (& set an example to us of prayer).
did He forsake Himself? no
it was an object lesson for us ... showing us His dual nature.
there is only 1 God ... scriptural proof:
deut.6:4 - 1 God
deut. 32:39 - no god w/ Him
isaiah 4:35 - no god beside Him
isaiah 43:10 - no god before or after Him
2 samuel 7:22 - no god like or beside Him
1 cor.8:4 - no other god but one
matt. 1:23 - Jesus is Emmanuel, "God with us"
2007-07-06 11:28:40 · answer #2 · answered by t d 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God is 3 persons in one
Yahweh the Father (often called God)
Jesus Christ the Son
The Holy Spirit
When Jesus said "My God, My God why have you forsaken me?" his 1st My God represented the Father, his 2nd one represented The Holy Spirit.
The Father himself called his son God when he said to his Son, thy throne O God is forever.
The Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit are all Co-Eternal, they are 3 persons but 1 God and they each have different fuctions.
However when one gets to heaven, only Jesus will be seen out of the 3 members of the Holy Trinity, because Jesus does have a Physical body whereas The Father and The Holy Spirit are spirits without Physical bodies so we would not be able to see the Father or The Holy Spirit.
2007-07-06 09:20:27 · answer #3 · answered by MrCool1978 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Trinity:
a word not found in Scripture, but used to express the doctrine of the unity of God as subsisting in three distinct Persons. This word is derived from the Gr. trias, first used by Theophilus (A..D. 168-183), or from the Lat. trinitas, first used by Tertullian (A.D. 220), to express this doctrine. The propositions involved in the doctrine are these: 1. That God is one, and that there is but one God (Deu 6:4; 1Ki 8:60; Isa 44:6; Mar 12:29,32; Jhn 10:30). 2. That the Father is a distinct divine Person (hypostasis, subsistentia, persona, suppositum intellectuale), distinct from the Son and the Holy Spirit. 3. That Jesus Christ was truly God, and yet was a Person distinct from the Father and the Holy Spirit. 4. That the Holy Spirit is also a distinct divine Person.
2007-07-06 09:21:12 · answer #4 · answered by easyericlife 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was physically separated from God while He was in human form on Earth. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit comprise the Godhead. Each is a separate entity, yet equal in their divinity. While Jesus was fully man, He was also fully God while on Earth. He refers to God separately in many places for that reason. He also says in John 10:30 that they are one. The word "trinity" does not appear in Scripture. The doctrine of the trinity is a statement that you believe that there are three equal distinct parts of the Godhead, as I described. Most Christian denominations do believe in the Trinity. I know J.W.s do not, and I'm sure there are others.
2007-07-06 10:09:26 · answer #5 · answered by Char 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus cried out those words as a human, not as a spirit. He gave up His kingship in heaven to be born as man. At the time He said this, He was on the cross, dying for the sins of all mankind. His Father could not associate Himself with anything sinful, even His own innocent Son who was taking all the heat. So at that one moment, God turned away from Jesus.
2007-07-06 09:20:24 · answer #6 · answered by High Flyer 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A. Jesus was quoting psalms. He probably started with Psalm 1 and continued to help Him get through the pain of what He was enduring.
B. Jesus is God, but He is not God the Father. Likewise, He is not God the Holy Spirit. They are all God and all one, but simultaneously distinct. Hard for us humans to understand because we're singular entities, but God is different.
2007-07-06 09:23:29 · answer #7 · answered by sparki777 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Question; If many 'Christians' currently do not obey Jesus; why should the Jews listen currently to the Christians' who assert he was the Messiah (Greek; Christos; English Christ)? The Jews and Christians are both given the 'two or more witnesses' principle. (Deut. 10-20; about three times; Christians Matt.18:16, 2 Cor. 13:1). Applying this principle to scripture; one finds the 'Old Testament' is not Genesis-Malachi, but the law of Moses (Exodus 20-Deut, 27). Can one have the law of Moses, before Moses is born? (Moses's birth recorded in Exodus 2). I could go on; but will stop here for now.
2016-05-20 00:12:00 · answer #8 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
when Jesus Christ cried, "my god my god..." Jesus was fullfilling Psalm 22, which is about God delivering you when you are in suffering and pain.
Keep in mind that Jesus Christ is True Man (therefore: Prayed, cried, suffered, died, etc.) Jesus is also True God (e.g. he forgave sins, resurrected, and is equal to God the Father and God the Holy Spirit) Since the incarnation, Jesus has two distinct natures (human and divine) united in a single divine person for eternity! Praise the LORD! God bless.
2007-07-06 09:15:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Jesus and God are not the same. John 14:28: "[...] I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am".
2007-07-06 09:26:52 · answer #10 · answered by Von Kempelen 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋