2007-07-05 18:14:07 · 29 answers · asked by alex 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
It's not correct as it isn't a complete sentence
2007-07-05 18:16:09 · answer #1 · answered by Weatherman 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
If "done" is the end of the sentence, then it's wrong. If there are more words, it might be OK.
I have been done for 15 minutes. What's taking you so long? OK
I have been done in.
(Maybe OK)
I have been done wrong.
(OK if you're Elvis Presley)
Addition: OK, OK. To those picky folks out there. The distinction between "done" and "finished" hardly exists anymore, except in academic journals and other very formal writing. Everybody else, including top magazines and newspapers, has changed with the times. Don't believe me. Go search a newspaper or magazine and see. http://www.nytimes.com/books/99/02/14/reviews/990214.14childrt.html (third paragraph)
Language changes rapidly, especially recently, and even what is in academic journals of today would have gotten lots of tssk, tssks a hundred years ago.
2007-07-06 01:59:00 · answer #2 · answered by Insanity 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, at the risk of sounding totally crude and obnoxious, if you had just finished recieving a sexual favor from another person you could say "I have been done". Otherwise, I can't think of another situation where you could say it.
It's really about context. I would need to see the rest of what you're trying to write before I could tell you the right way to write it (assuming the above is not what you meant), but most likely, in context, the sentence you wrote is not quite what you intended in terms of meaning.
2007-07-06 01:45:38 · answer #3 · answered by David M 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not considering the lack of the period , it depends on how you use the sentence .... if you use the sentence to mean that you have been defeated , it is grammatically correct , If you use it to mean that you have finished doing a task , then it's incorrect. In that case , you should use "I am done."
2007-07-06 01:19:42 · answer #4 · answered by lukey7650 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This sentence is correct. The meaning of this piece of language is : My work is finished or my part of job is done/completed.
bye.
2007-07-06 01:38:01 · answer #5 · answered by ashish s 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Grammatically it is correct; as for meaning, it can have several, all of them colloquial.
It can mean:
(a) I have had my turn - for example, if a number of people are waiting to have their hair cut, someone might say "You go next" and the reply might be "No, it's OK, I have been done" .
(b) I have been cheated. For example, if you buy a car and find - after the vendor has already taken your money and disappeared - that the car has no engine, you might well exclaim: "I have been done!"
(c) I believe it is currently in use in the vernacular of young people to signify "I have been the recipient of sexual congress"
2007-07-06 01:25:24 · answer #6 · answered by GrahamH 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
if something is being done to YOU then it is correct but you have to have something else in order to make it a complete sentence
for example:
I have been done lots of harm in the past.
2007-07-06 01:37:09 · answer #7 · answered by emva07 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It depends on what you imply. If you are trying to say you've been done, like you had sex, then that would be a correct sentence. Other sentences could be:
I did.
I am done for.
I am done.
I have been done by a chick.
(Your question was hard to understand.)
2007-07-06 01:16:50 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yes it is, it depends on how you use the sentence .... if you use the sentence to mean that you have been defeated , it is grammatically correct.
2007-07-06 01:51:56 · answer #9 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not really.... if u mean u r finished, that say "I am finished" or "I have finished"... I f u r talking about something that is done by someone else (hair for example) u could say "my hair has been done". But for a person...... (unless u r being cooked of course!!!!!)
2007-07-06 04:02:17 · answer #10 · answered by mavmar72 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋