There is only one Immaculate Conception, that is the Blessed Virgin.
And her fathers DNA is found in her.
If you think of Jesus. His conception was not just immaculate, it was miraculous.
God is the master of nature and life, so I think it would be quite easy for Him to provide the human Y chromosome.
2007-07-05 08:33:41
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answer #1
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answered by carl 4
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It would depend on whose DNA was found in the unborn baby. If it only had the mother's DNA, then possibly, especially if it was anatomically male. Otherwise, no, not really. A woman can be physically a virgin and still come in contact with semen, and just because her HUSBAND isn't the father doesn't mean there isn't a mortal father around.
2007-07-05 08:30:26
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answer #2
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answered by mikalina 4
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The term "immaculate conception" in Catholic theology actually means the conception of Mary in the normal way (not virginally, as in the gospel infancy narratives) without original sin. However, in the popular sense you're using it, yes, such a scientifically documented event would change my beliefs about human biology, but not about my personal faith.
2007-07-05 08:35:19
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answer #3
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answered by Mary Ann B 2
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You obviously misunderstand what 'Immaculate Conception' means. It is the Catholic doctrine that Mary was born without the taint of 'Original Sin'. It has absolutely nothing to do with her conception of Jesus.
But... since this is all mythological nonsense, anyway, it hardly matters for any reason than to keep your myths straight.
Dang... don't you just love it, when an atheist gets to explain christianity to christians?
2007-07-05 08:31:03
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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I would have a hard time believing it, BUT is is possible in some animals so why not in humans? Sharks have been know to have virgin births, komodo dragons have, fish and frogs can change their sex. Stranger things have happened. But even if it did happen it would not be proof of gods existence.
2007-07-05 08:32:18
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answer #5
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answered by Matt - 3
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OK, so WHOSE DNA is found, then? If it's all hers, then it's pathenogenesis. If someone else supplied the haploid, who are they? How does the Holy Ghost get to have human DNA?
We don't have to operate by just 'believing' such things nowadays. We can find out.
CD
2007-07-05 08:33:42
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answer #6
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answered by Super Atheist 7
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First of all, the "immaculate conception" of Mary is different than the "virgin birth" of Jesus. You seem to be confused.
And medically, it IS possible for a woman to get pregnant without penetration, if that is what you are asking.
What is your point?
2007-07-05 08:35:04
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answer #7
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answered by Randy G 7
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"Immaculate conception" means conceived without being stained with Original Sin. Many people don't believe in Original Sin, and therefore believe themselves to be immaculately conceived.
2007-07-05 08:29:28
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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If a woman has a baby and her husband's dna aint there i would say she'll need a lawyer!
2007-07-05 08:32:02
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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You CAN get pregnant without vaginal penetration. There is a risk of pregnancy if sperm is anywhere on the vulva, especially on the labia minora.
2007-07-05 08:30:45
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answer #10
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answered by EMC 3
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