Did abbreviating book names in the Bible make Christians stupid?

Question

When I studied the Bible in Latin (not the only time I studied it, but this was in the context of a Roman history course) I was told that certain books were Pauline epistles and the author of them who called himself *I* was PAUL.

Twice today I've seen Christians (well, alleged Christians) call the I in the epistles (letters) JESUS.

Was changing the name of, say, Romans, from Paul's Epistle (letter) to the Romans to Romans responsible for this confusion of authorship?

By the way, Romans, itself, is in Koine Greek, but the outline of it is that of a Latin-style diatribe, not a more traditional style of epistle. It's really fascinating, as he likely wrote it in Latin, translated it to Greek....then presented it to Romans, who, at that point in time, surely read Latin as well as Greek....so who was he writing it for, really?

Regardless, the *I* is still NOT Jesus.

Answer 1

Its all Greek to me.

Answer 2

While Paul's epistle to the Romans follows the form of a Latin diatribe, it does not mean it had to have been written in Latin. It just means it follows that form. There is no evidence that Paul originally wrote in Latin. Nor any such tradition recorded by the church.

As Paul's letter is addressed specifically to the Roman Christians, it is every likely that was his intended audience. But realize that at the time Paul was writing, even the church at Rome had many Jews in it. In fact, they may have been the majority still. So his letters are written in a language that would be familiar to both the Jews and the gentiles (Romans) in the church.

Answer 3

It could be confusing to those who don't do their studies. Fortunately, I do!