Jehovah's Witnesses, where is the name "Jehovah" here?

Question

Revelation 19:6b in the NWT reads: "They said: “Praise Jah, YOU people, because Jehovah our God, the Almighty, has begun to rule as king." (The KJV translates this as: "Alleluia: for the Lord [kurios] God [theos] omnipotent reigneth.")

As you can see, the Greek text ACTUALLY reads "kurios" instead of "Jehovah" at this passage.

Question 1: why did the translators of the NWT insert Jehovah at Rev. 19:6b?

Question 2: why is Jehovah the "correct" translation for "kurios" at Rev. 19:6, yet the NWT also translates "kurios" as "Lord" at John 20:25? It's the same word!

Using the NWT's own argument, Jesus = kurios = Jehovah.

Wow, Debbie I thought you were a JW. By writing "It's the word for the Almighty God in English," you've just admitted that Jesus is God -- not "a god."

Answer 1

To answer your question, the name "Jehovah" appears in the shortened form "Praise Jah" or "Hallelujah" ONLY in the first part of the verse. 19:6b which you specifically asked about does not say "Jehovah". It is evident from the answers you received, that what the Bible actually says means little to anyone who doesn't like what it says. They just substitute some human reasoning, and find excuses to invalidate it.

In answer to one person who asked "Why is it so wrong to restore the name where we know it belongs", I ask: How in the world could you or anyone else know WHERE - which verses, which words - to "restore" something, that from all manuscript evidence, wasn't even there to begin with? Do you think Jehovah is pleased with translators who ignore the Bible he provided, and say "we know this is wrong". According to your argument, we may as well dismiss all the Scriptures - including the Old Testament - since they were copied by men and changed are therefore unreliable.

Do you see why people think you have your own Bible? Because if something didn't fit in with what you believe, it was just altered and dressed up with a fancy name like "restoring". Are JW's the only ones who've done that? No. But does that make it right?

Answer 2

It is true that none of the STILL EXISTING MSS of the NT use the divine name. However, we know it belongs there and we also know that the MSS we have today were copies of copies, etc., written hundreds of years after the originals, and therefore may well have been changed when the name became a hated "Jewish" name to "Christians" (around 135 A.D.). So why is it considered so terribly wrong to restore, for the sake of clarity if nothing else, the name we know belongs there?

For those not caring to listen to JWs about this, then just read the following three independant quotes:

"ALLELUIA, the Greek form (Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6) of the Hebrew Hallelujah = Praise ye JEHOVAH, which begins or ends several of the psalms (106, 111, 112, 113, etc.)." – Easton’s Bible Dictionary, Thomas Nelson Publ., 1897.

"Hallelujah....is derived from halal, which means to praise, and Jah, which is the name of God .... here in this chapter [Rev. 19] the original Hebrew form transliterated into Greek, is retained." - p. 169, Vol. 2, William Barclay, The Revelation of John, Revised Edition, The Daily Study Bible Series, Westminster Press, 1976.

"Alleluia, so written in Rev. 19:6, foll., or more properly Hallelujah, Praise ye Jehovah ...." - p. 31. "Jah (Jehovah), the abbreviated form of Jehovah ... The identity of Jah and Jehovah is strongly marked in two passages of Isaiah - 12:2; 26:4." - p. 276, Smith’s Bible Dictionary, William Smith, Hendrickson Publ.

If the Jewish Christian and Apostle John had left God’s name out of the NT originally, he surely would not have then used "Hallelu JAH!" in four places in Revelation 19, for he knew exactly what it truly said: "Praise ye Jehovah"! Only the Hebrew-ignorant Gentile "Christian" copyists would be fooled by "Hallelujah" exactly as they were when they removed and changed the Divine Name in the Septuagint about the same time!

Actually, then, "Jehovah" IS found in ALL existing MSS of the NT which include Rev. 19.

And exactly who is the God whom all are commanded to praise? "God who sits on the throne" (19:4) is the FATHER, Jehovah alone. See all other instances of the God seated on the throne in the Book of Revelation (e.g., Rev. 4:2, 8; 5:6, 7, 16; 7:9). "The Lord our God the Almighty [pantokrator]" (Rev. 19:6) is never used of the Son (nor anyone else), but only the FATHER, Jehovah alone. -(RDB)

So in actuality, shouldn't it be the translators who "inserted" the title "LORD" instead of the divine name really be the ones to be questioned about this?

Answer 3

Question 1: why did the translators of the NWT insert Jehovah at Rev. 19:6b?

In the Christian Greek Scriptures the word Pan‧to‧kra′tor occurs ten times, nine of them in the book of Revelation. The word basically means “Almighty,” or “All Powerful.

Throughout Revelation the title Pan‧to‧kra′tor is applied to the Creator and King of Eternity, Jehovah, as in “the song of Moses the slave of God and the song of the Lamb [Jesus Christ],” which acclaims Jehovah God as the one worthy of worship and fear by all nations. (Re 15:3; compare Re 21:22.)

The title’s application to Jehovah God is made obvious at Revelation 19:6 by the use of the expression Hallelujah (Praise Jah, you people!).

Question 2: why is Jehovah the "correct" translation for "kurios" at Rev. 19:6, yet the NWT also translates "kurios" as "Lord" at John 20:25? It's the same word!

A transliteration of the Hebrew expression ha‧lelu-Yah′, appearing first at Psalm 104:35. In the New World Translation it is nearly always translated “praise Jah, you people.” A Greek form of it appears four times at Revelation 19:1-6, where the reference is to the joy experienced over the destruction of Babylon the Great and that associated with Jehovah’s beginning to rule as King.

"the Almighty, has begun to rule as king."

Jesus is only allocated a 1000 years on the throne. Once Jehovah's enemy's are destroyed he has to return the throne to his father who will begin a new epoch in his reign. Since Jesus rule does not start until after his resurrection in the New testament he is not the same deity that ruled over the nation of Israel.

Answer 4

Why don't you do some research rather than bringing up doubting and antagonistic questions against JWs?

Go to the Lexicon in Greek. The word alleluia, means Praise Ye the Lord, Hallelujah. The jah on the end means Jehovah.

But you knew that didn't you.

Answer to Question 1. What I told you.

Question 2 - Lord has many meanings and can mean many things.

But you knew that also, didn't you.

You must remember that John 3:16 says that Jesus is God's only begotten son. To believe that Jesus is God denys that and will not save you.

Oh, I agree with scheidemann20 on this one.

Answer 5

Because they didn't recognise that the letter “J” didn't exist till many centuries after the New Testament used to be written. The identify “Jehovah” is an try to transliterate the Hebrew consonants YHWH, the sacred “tetragrammaton” that's discovered within the Hebrew Text which the Old Testament of the King James Bible is founded on. As God's identify used to be understood by way of Jews to be too holy to be said, the letters YHWH had been used, and the phrase “Adonai,” that means “Lord” used to be written under it, or substituted for it, and is probably held by way of students that during time, the vowels from Adonai grew to become inserted into YHWH, the “a” fitting an “e” and the “y” fitting “j” and “v” getting used for “w”. The letter “J” didn't exist till many centuries after the New Testament used to be written, and Yahweh is generally held to be the extra right try at transliteration. However, God does used translations, because the New Testament has phrases translated into Greek, and the identify identify that God has declared souls are stored by way of, baptized by way of, healed by way of, and referred to as by way of, is Jesus Christ, or Yehoshua M?šîa? from Hebrew, and I?soûs. Khristós from Greek.

Answer 6

It seems dishonest to ignore the fact that the term "Alleluia" or "Hallelu-jah" literally translates into English as "Praise Jah". A bible which refuses to include this obvious example of the shortened form of the divine name seems unlikely to include the full form of the divine name.

This question also strangely ignores the fact that "lord" is used throughout the Scriptures to refer to mere angels and even various human nobles. Does the questioner pretend that each and every angelic and human "lord" must be part of some multi-tarian god?


NWT restores the divine name about 200 times in the so-called New Testament (compared to the nearly SEVEN THOUSAND times it is removed from the KJV bible and others). There are 27 other translations had made conscientious decisions about where it seems likely that the divine name was removed, and about half of them restore the divine name at Revelation 19:6 as NWT does.

This is unsurprising, because Revelation 19:6 plainly refers to ALMIGHTY God, and there is but one Almighty God. His name in English is "Jehovah".

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/na/index.htm?article=diagram_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm

Answer 7

The Hebrew word Shad·dai′ and the Greek word Pan·to·kra′tor are both translated “Almighty.” Both original-language words are repeatedly applied to Jehovah, the Father. (Ex. 6:3; Rev. 19:6) Neither expression is ever applied to either the Son or the holy spirit.

‘Hallelujah—Jehovah Is King!’

There are further reasons for rejoicing, as John goes on to tell us: “And I heard what was as a voice of a great crowd and as a sound of many waters and as a sound of heavy thunders. They said: ‘Hallelujah, because Jehovah our God, the Almighty, has begun to rule as king.’” (Revelation 19:6) This last Hallelujah is the one that makes the proclamation foursquare, or symmetrical. It is a mighty celestial sound, more magnificent than any human choir, more majestic than any earthly waterfall, and more fear-inspiring than any terrestrial thunderstorm. The myriads of heavenly voices celebrate the fact that “Jehovah our God, the Almighty, has begun to rule as king.”

How is it, though, that Jehovah begins to rule? Millenniums have passed since the psalmist declared: “God is my King from long ago.” (Psalm 74:12) Jehovah’s kingship was ancient even then, so how can the universal chorus sing that “Jehovah . . . has begun to rule as king”? In that when Babylon the Great is destroyed, Jehovah will no longer have that presumptuous rival to detract from obedience to him as the Universal Sovereign. No longer will false religion incite earth’s rulers to oppose him. When ancient Babylon fell from world dominance, Zion heard the victorious proclamation: “Your God has become king!” (Isaiah 52:7) After the Kingdom’s birth in 1914, the 24 elders proclaimed: “We thank you, Jehovah God . . . because you have taken your great power and begun ruling as king.” (Revelation 11:17) Now, after the devastation of Babylon the Great, the cry is again uttered: “Jehovah . . . has begun to rule as king.” No man-made god remains to contest the sovereignty of the true God, Jehovah!

Answer 8

I think you have to understand the book that you are dealing with. This is a severely altered version of the bible, I am not sure there is an answer to your questions other than, "because they wanted to." I know that the Jehovah's Witnesses find it important to specify emphatically that Jehovah is the name of god. Perhaps they are just trying to punctuate the idea. Don't ask me why they don't do it in other areas as well.

If a simple word substitution is cause for concern, then you probably shouldn't read, Mark 11:26, or Mark 9:44, or 46, because they aren't there. The verses have been removed, to coincide with their doctrine, and these aren't the only verses. My advice, read another version, I find the King James to be the most complete and accurate to date.

Answer 9

So according to your arguement, every Lord must be Jehovah and Jesus.

So in Ps 110:1 LORD (Jehovah and Jesus) spoke to what Lord of King David?

If every Lord is the same, then every God must be the same?

Since Moses is called God to Pharaoh, (Ex 7:1)
Since the angel of Jehovah is called God, (Judges 13: 21,22)

Then Moses and the angel have to be Jehovah and Jesus also?

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Rev. 19:6 “Praise Jah, YOU people, *

* “Hallelujah.” Gr., Hal·le·lou·i·a′; J22(Heb.), ha·lelu·yah′. “Jah.” Heb., Yah, an abbreviated form of the divine name.

Strong's

AV #H3050 Yah — LORD 48, JAH 1

1) Jah (Jehovah in the shortened form)

a) the proper name of the one true God

b) used in many compounds

1) names beginning with the letters 'Je'

2) names ending with 'iah' or 'jah'


Rev 19:6(b)

Literally "Lord the God of us, the Almighty"

Since

Jesus is never called 'Almighty',

Jah, denotes which Lord is being spoken about,

Jehovah is the only one called 'Almighty'

The NWT helps it's readers understand the finer points being discussed in this verse.

19:6a Jah; 19:6b Jehovah agrees with the context.

Add to this at least 7 other bibles also use Jehovah in this reference.

Should Jehovah's name appear in the NT?

There is evidence that Jesus’ disciples used the Tetragrammaton in their writings. In his work De viris inlustribus [Concerning Illustrious Men], chapter III, Jerome, in the fourth century, wrote the following: “Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language and characters for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed. Who translated it after that in Greek is not sufficiently ascertained. Moreover, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently collected. I also was allowed by the Nazarenes who use this volume in the Syrian city of Beroea to copy it.” (Translation from the Latin text edited by E. C. Richardson and published in the series “Texte und Untersuchungen zur Geschichte der altchristlichen Literatur,” Vol. 14, Leipzig, 1896, pp. 8, 9.)

Matthew made more than a hundred quotations from the inspired Hebrew Scriptures. Where these quotations included the divine name he would have been obliged faithfully to include the Tetragrammaton in his Hebrew Gospel account. When the Gospel of Matthew was translated into Greek, the Tetragrammaton was left untranslated within the Greek text according to the practice of that time.

Concerning the use of the Tetragrammaton in the Christian Greek Scriptures, George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63: “Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God’s name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for N[ew] T[estament] studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. In the following pages we will set forth a theory that the divine name, הוהי (and possibly abbreviations of it), was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the O[ld] T[estament] and that in the course of time it was replaced mainly with the surrogate ? [abbreviation for Ky′ri·os, “Lord”]. This removal of the Tetragram[maton], in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the ‘Lord God’ and the ‘Lord Christ’ which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself.”

“In pre-Christian Greek [manuscripts] of the O[ld] T[estament], the divine name (yhwh) was not rendered by ‘kyrios’ [lord] as has often been thought. Usually the Tetragram was written out in Aramaic or in paleo-Hebrew letters. . . . At a later time, surrogates [substitutes] such as ‘theos’ [God] and ‘kyrios’ replaced the Tetragram . . . There is good reason to believe that a similar pattern evolved in the N[ew] T[estament], i.e. the divine name was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the OT, but in the course of time it was replaced by surrogates.”—“New Testament Abstracts,” 3, 1977, p. 306.

The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 649) says: “One of the most fundamental and essential features of the biblical revelation is the fact that God is not without a name: he has a personal name, by which he can, and is to be, invoked.” Jesus certainly had that name in mind when he taught his followers to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.”—Matthew 6:9.


Even the Babylonian Talmud provides proof that Jehovah's name appeared in the 1st century christian writings.



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Answer 10

They say it was left out by the translators. (how convenient)

Here is another, more blatant, example. In Revelation 1:8, we see an addition made to the text.

Rev 1:8 [NWT] - “I am the Al´pha and the O·me´ga,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.”

"Lord" is purposely mistranslated. The Greek kuvrio means "supreme ruler" and is not the name Jehovah or YHWH. This same word for "Lord" is used in referring to Jesus in many passages. Using the NWT rendering of "Lord" in the verse above, let's translate the same Greek word used in Matthew 12:8, (Jesus speaking) "For the Son of man is Jehovah God even of the sabbath day."
So, either the New World Translation is lying to suit their doctrine, or Jesus is Jehovah according to their own translation. This blatantly reveals the agenda of the Watchtower organization. They have added to Revelation and thus put themselves under the condemnation of Revelation 22:18.

Now let us look at Revelation 22:13...
Rev 22:13 [NWT] - "Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to render to each one as his work is. I am the Al´pha and the O·me´ga, the first and the last, the beginning and the end."

Who is He that is coming quickly? According to Revelation 22:20, it is the Lord Jesus. What is the reward? It is our inheritance from the Lord Christ as stated in Colossians 3:24. If this is Jehovah speaking, it would be a contradiction, or that Jesus is God (which violates their doctrine).