You are correct, neither hebrew (the language of the Yanach(Old testament)), or aramaic (the day to day vernacular in Israel at the time of Jesus) has a 'J' sound. It is normally translitered as "Yo"- making the correct transliteration into english Yoachim
The sentence " (ש"ע)יואכים, שם פרטי לזכר; שם משפחה; יהויכין, מלך יהודה(בתנ"ך)
quoted by Gunner literalyl translates as
"Yoachim, masculine personal name; surname. Y'hochin, King of Judah ( In the Tanach))"
Hmm- looks like he took two dictionary entries by mistake.
2007-07-04 21:57:09
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answer #1
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answered by allonyoav 7
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Her mother is St.Anne. Mary's father's name was Joachim. (It would have been spelled with a Y or an I instead of a J, depending on the language.)
However, none of the "historical" evidence we have of him is from the Bible - only other religious texts such as the Gospel of St.James.
Edited to respond - I realize that. I included that information as an explanation as to why the lack of a J in Hebrew in unimportant to the question. Since the gospel of St.James was written later on, it would not have been written in Hebrew. I'm sorry that was not clear.
2007-07-04 21:26:37
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answer #2
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answered by Delicious Pear 5
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The Bible is silent about this. The only thing we have is the gospel of James or the The Protovangelion.
Here is some info on that particular book:
"The majority of the Protovangelion ("primary gospel") is devoted not to the infancy of Christ, but rather the life of Mary. She is portrayed as not only a virgin but one who was a bastion of ritual purity her entire life. Much of the dogma responsible for the veneration of Mary can be traced to this document. In fact, its popularity is attested to by the numerous surviving ancient translations, the earliest dating back to the third century, and the early liturgical use of the gospel among some Eastern churches. Among the extracanonical traditions recorded in the gospel are the introduction of Joseph as a widower with several children who is merely Mary's guardian, the birth of Jesus in a cave, and the martyrdom of John the Baptist's father Zechariah during the slaughter of the infants.
The author identifies himself as James, presumably the brother of Jesus, and claims to have written shortly after the death of Herod in 4 B.C. This dating is unlikely, however, for the work betrays evidence of redactional passages from both Matthew and Luke. In addition to the canonical nativity accounts, the work borrows heavily from phrasing in the Septuagint. The most likely time of composition is the 2nd century, shortly before references to the work appear in other Christian writings, and when such "harmonies" of existing traditions were commonly recorded."
As which much extra-biblical writings, it adds some things to the text and removes others.
2007-07-04 21:40:34
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answer #3
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answered by BrotherMichael 6
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The new testament was not written in Hebrew. It was written in a type of Summarian dialect, depending on which book, or in Greek.
So it is not unlikely that Mary's Father's name was Joachim, seeing as how the book was not written in Hebrew, and in some other language which may include "J".
2007-07-04 21:35:22
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answer #4
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answered by Cassie G 3
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It would be pronounced as Yoachim. J is romanized spelling that would change to Yo.
For another example, John would be pronounced as Ioann, or Yoan. That is how their names are translated in Slavic Bibles.
2007-07-04 21:26:34
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answer #5
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answered by Monkey Chunks 3
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Ioachim
2007-07-04 21:27:07
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answer #6
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answered by Invisible_Flags 6
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I believe Monkey Chunks is write, it would have been pronounced with an Y or I.
2007-07-09 06:47:39
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answer #7
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answered by Miss 6 7
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Joachim
(ש"×¢) ××××××, ×©× ×¤×¨×× ×××ר; ×©× ×שפ××; ×××××××, ××× ××××× (××ª× "×) .I think you refer to Latin or Greek: INRI or IHS. Both refer to Jesus of Nazareth.
2007-07-04 21:36:49
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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No, your right.
Be well.
2007-07-04 21:24:43
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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