Title 26 of the U.S. Code is the law. Specifically, TITLE 26, Subtitle A, CHAPTER 1, Subchapter A, PART I, § 1. In that section it says, "There is hereby imposed on the taxable income of...". That is pretty self-explanatory to most reasonable thinking people. http://www2.law.cornell.edu/uscode/26/usc_sec_26_00000001----000-.html
If you read somewhere that wages are not income section 61(a) of the Internal Revenue Code says that “gross income” (which is the starting point for determining “taxable income”) means “all income from whatever source derived, including (but not limited to) the following items: (1) Compensation for services, including fees, commissions, fringe benefits, and similar items....”
If you don't believe that or don't believe it applies to wages. Here are some relevant court cases for you.
Hill v. United States, 599 F. Supp. 118, 120-22 (M.D. Tenn. 1984) “[I]f anything in our tax law is clear, it is that: ‘WAGES ARE INCOME.’ ... [A]ny contention to the contrary is patently frivolous....”
United States v. Koliboski, 732 F.2d 1328, 1329 n.1 (7th Cir. 1984) “Although not raised in his brief on appeal, the defendant’s entire case at trial rested on his claim that he in good faith believed that wages are not income for taxation purposes. Whatever his mental state, he, of course, was wrong, as all of us are already aware. Nontheless, the defendant still insists that no case holds that wages are income. Let us now put that to rest: WAGES ARE INCOME. Any reading of tax cases by would-be tax protesters now should preclude a claim of good-faith belief that wages--or salaries--are not taxable.”
United States v. Connor, 898 F.2d 942, 943-944 (3rd Cir. 1990). “Every court which has ever considered the issue has unequivocally rejected the argument that wages are not income.”
Connor v. Commissioner, 770 F.2d 17, 20 (2nd Cir. 1985), (the court not only ruled against the taxpayer, but also imposed sanctions of $2,000 for making a frivolous appeal).
“The taxpayer next argues that wages are not income but an exchange of property. As money is property and labor is property, so his argument goes, his work for wages is a non-taxable exchange of property. Wrong again. Wages are income. See, e.g., Schiff v. Commissioner, 751 F.2d 116, 117 (2d Cir. 1984). The argument that they are not has been rejected so frequently that the very raising of it justifies the imposition of sanctions.”
Schiff v. United States, 919 F.2d 830, 834 (2nd Cir. 1990).
“The payment of income taxes is not optional ... and the average citizen knows that payment of income taxes is legally required.”
Any other tax protestor arguments you wish to have proven wrong?
2007-07-04 10:59:55
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answer #1
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answered by NGC6205 7
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ahhh...a tax protester...how nice.....
Here is the actually law....
http://www4.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode26/usc_sup_01_26.html
The whole "tax on labor" must be a new angle with tax protesters. It has come up quite a bit lately.
No one (not one single person) has ever been taxed on their "labor". We are taxed on our income! The tax code taxes income "from whatever source dervived". Wages, salaries, bonuses are all "income". Labor has not ever been taxed. If you used your labor to work for free, you would never pay a dime in taxes.
Tax Protesters have a perfect record in court. They are batting .000. File your returns and pay your taxes. You will be much happier in the long run.
2007-07-04 10:19:05
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answer #2
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answered by Wayne Z 7
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I could look it up but im not going too..
Ask the 10's of thousands of people in prison that didnt think there was a law and didnt pay their taxes. They have a hell of alot more time to look it up for you then I do.
2007-07-04 10:08:34
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answer #3
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answered by financing_loans 6
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modification XVI (the sixteenth modification) of usa shape, authorizing earnings taxes of their contemporary form, replaced into ratified on February 3, 1913. "The Congress shall have skill to place and deliver mutually taxes on earning, from in spite of the fact that source derived, without apportionment between diverse States, and without regard to any census or enumeration." ......the skill to impose taxes (whether deemed direct or oblique taxes) is granted with the aid of Article I, area 8, clause a million. oblique taxes (or "excises," contained in the parlance of the text textile of the form) are required to be geographically uniform, in accordance to Article I, area 8, clause a million and the courtroom judgements examining that provision. What gets misinterpreted is the fabulous to calculate your guy or woman taxes; that's what we do as quickly as we fill out our 1040 types. we've not got the fabulous to not pay them.
2016-09-29 02:01:48
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answer #4
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answered by belvin 4
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The specific law has been cited here many times. If you aren't interested in listening, and just want to be in denial, there's no point in repeating it.
2007-07-04 10:24:35
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answer #5
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answered by Judy 7
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Tax Kook alert!
Tax Kook alert!
One who can't even read at that!
FYI, "labor" isn't taxed. But the compensation for that labor most certainly is.
2007-07-05 04:45:08
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answer #6
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answered by Bostonian In MO 7
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The law is a contract that you signed.
2007-07-04 15:16:00
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answer #7
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answered by rhett_madison 3
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http://docs.law.gwu.edu/facweb/jsiegel/Personal/taxes/JustNoLaw.htm
2007-07-04 10:02:34
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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There is none.
2007-07-04 10:02:01
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answer #9
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answered by blahh2 2
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