When can a religion be indited for the violence of its sheeple?

Question

Islam is not indited when a Muslim robber kills a possible witness to his crime, nor is Christianty indited when a Christian man beats his wife cause she said something that upset him. Neither scenario is is causally linked to the religious doctrine of the criminals.

A religion is indited by the violence committed from its followers, when that violence is inspired by the doctrines of the religion. Heres the litmus test:

But for the doctrines of this religion, would this type of violence occur?

Jihad is another species of violence, like murder in self defense, or robbery based on poverty. BUT FOR ISLAM, we wouldnt have people screaming ALLUAH AKBAR and then blowing up tourists in Yemen.

The Spanish tourists in Yemen were not blown-up because they all slept with his wife.

The Spanish tourists in Yemen were not blown-up because they had valuables the Jihadists wanted to confiscate for the afterlife.

The tourists were blown-up for Allah. Islam convicted.

Answer 1

No, the church cannot be blamed, unfortunately, but the faith can. Doesn't seem right, does it?

Answer 2

Violence is promoted through religion only when people take their religion's staple book (the Bible, the Qu'ran) and take it out of context to support their own amends.
Violence would also exist even if religion never did.

In Christianity it is wrong for a man to hit his wife.
And in Islam, those men won't receive their 71 (or is it 72?) virgins.

Answer 3

Five million Iraqi civilians have died horribly since 1991 because "the Jewish State" and Rep. Tom Lantos and 7 million American jews doesn't like Arabs. I notice there is one religion you don't have the guts to mention. They already begun the campaign for an eventual U.S. attack on iran. Bump 'em off one at a time. They have to create Eretz Israel.

Answer 4

He who gains oppresson is not gaining welfare. He who mistreats people should not complain when people mistreat him.