Can you see the trinity at John 1:1 (KJB)...?

Question

...although it NEVER mentions three co-equal, co-eternal, almighty "persons"?

For those of you taking pot shots at what the NWT says at John 1:1, tell me where you see evidence of a trinity in YOUR Bible.

Tom, where do you see 3 persons in John 1:1?

There are a number of Bibles that say "a god" at John 1:1 besides the NWT. So put away your biases.

Patrone07, nowhere in the Bible can you find the expression "God the Son."

James, where do you see that John 1:1 "allude[s] to the fact that God is manifest in three personalities"? Do you see 3 personalities there? I don't see them.

Answer 1

**NOT AT ALL!
--FIRST OF ALL there are only 2 in reference at John 1:1! SO HOW could that be a trinity?
--SECONDLY, when someone is with someone there is always 2 persons, not 1!
--THIRDLY, the Greek rendering of John 1:1 is as follow:(John 1:1) “1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a **god. . .”
** Footnote ***Rbi8 John 1:1
“A god.” Gr., the·os′, in contrast with ton The·on′, “the God,” in the same sentence; J17,18(Heb.), we’·lo·him′, “and god.” For a discussion of “a god,” see App 6A.
--THE REFERENCE J 17, 18 are these:
*J17 Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by Franz Delitzsch, London, 1981 ed.
*J18 Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by Isaac Salkinson and C. D. Ginsburg, London

--THUS 2 types of God are referred to "THE(true) God!(Jehovah Or Yahweh & "a god"--which Christ , the angels, satan, the demons are in that they have god-like attributes such as invisibility, super-human powers; even humans who rule make themselves gods in a perverted sense(Pharoah) etc.
--FOURTHLY there are other translations that attribute the Word as of only god-like identification:
*** rs p. 417 Trinity ***
John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317.
--In harmony with the above, AT reads: “the Word was divine”; Mo, “the Logos was divine”; NTIV, “the word was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.” Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as “a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as “gods” (Hebrew, ’elo·him′; Greek, the·oi′, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law."
--FIFTHLY, SIXTHLY, SEVENTHLY ETC. we can continue to enumerate many other reasons in the ENTIRE chapter of John 1
--which if people were honest, should certainly take into account, rather that 1 or 2 isolated verses--that do not make sense in view of reasonableness:
Philipeans 4:5 "Let your reasonableness become conspicuous...."Byington Transl.
--THERE HAS never been, is not now & never will be any reasonableness in discussing the trinity as truth!

--INTERESTING reference from the 20's! Only a person who wants to speculate can answer that BECAUSE indeed:
--WE AS Jehovah's witnesses at present would NEVER seek accurate information from anybody or any organization practicing spiritism, except on their expertise of spiritism!
---SO THEN if any of our answerers wish to make issues out of what was POSSIBLY said & done by our organization some 90 years ago --HAVE YOUR FUN!

Answer 2

At John 17:3, did Jesus say that the Father, Son, and the holy spirit is the true God? Not even close. Instead, he called the Father the only true God. What Jesus said here is in harmony with 1 Cor. 8:6, where it says: "There is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him." Eph. 5:6 says: "One God and Father of all [persons], who is over all and through all and in all." All three of these verses identify the Father as God, NOT the Son. One God and Father. NO trinity. The Catholic Church invented the trinity over 300 years AFTER the death of Christ. As A Catholic Dictionary notes: “The third Person was asserted at a Council of Alexandria in 362 . . . and finally by the Council of Constantinople of 381.” Those who defend the trinity with 1 John 5:7 have not been informed by their clergymen that the phrase "For there are three witness bearers” this added passage reads, “in heaven, the Father, the Word and the holy spirit; and these three are one" is a spurious addition to the Bible. That phrase does NOT appear in most modern Bibles, including the Catholic Jeusalem Bible and the New American Bible.

Answer 3

You can find several scriptures stating TWO. So God has definitely been proved at least as a "bi"nity. Why not include the Holy Spirit? After all he is God's Spirit....
Have you non-trinitarians ever wondered why you're the minority of believers?

What do you think of these verses?

Philippians 2:5-7
John 20:28
John 1:18
John 14:7-13
Colossians 2:9
1 John 5:20
Titus 2:13
Luke 1:35

You can look them all up here: http://www.bible.org/

Answer 4

Amen we do have three persons in one God. Here we have three difference persons in the use of the Word. John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The Lord Jesus Christ was the Word that created all things. Ephesians 3:9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: When God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit created man all were involved in that creation. Genesis 1: 26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

Answer 5

John 1:1 - John writes, "the Word was God." This is clear evidence of Jesus Christ's divinity. (Note: in the Jehovah's bible, the passage was changed to "Word was a god." This is not only an embarrassing attempt to deny the obvious divinity of Christ, but it also violates the first commandment and Isaiah 43:10 because it acknowledges that there is more than one God).

John 1:2-3 - He (the Word) was in the beginning with God and all things were made through Him (the Word who was God).

John 1:14 - the Word (who is God) became flesh (Jesus) and dwelled among us, full of grace and truth.

John 1:18 - the Greek word for "only-begotten" is "monogenes" which means unique, only member of a kind. It does not mean created.

Answer 6

No, all I see here are two persons: the Word, which later on becomes flesh and dwells among us and God who was with the Word before the incarnation.

I do believe in the Trinity, but there are other places where you have to go to pick this up like John 13, Isa 48:16, etc.

Answer 7

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Nope...Nothing about the trinity there.

Edit: My friend I work with is a different faith than I am and she says she does see it. I guess it just depends on what you believe.

Answer 8

It does not mention co-equal in John 1:1
It does allude to the fact that God is manifest in three personalities---one God plural is not three Gods--it is one god in plural form--"study(work diligently) to show thyself approved unto God a workman that needed not to be ashamed." "In the beginning was the word(Jesus) and the word (Jesus) was with God(Elohim) and the word(Jesus) was God (Elohim)"

"And the word(Jesus) was make flesh and dwelt among us.

New World Translation report a differing meaning which is not accepted by most reputable Biblical interpreters.

Answer 9

It's referring to God the Son and how he became Jesus Christ in order to save us.

Jesus did say to baptise in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit! God bless you.

Answer 10

You will find the reference in Matt 28:19.