Leviticus (right around the spot where it says it is ok to keep slaves).
Paul also said this in Romans.
Jesus, however, chilled with prostitutes, so I doubt he really cared.
2007-07-02 10:45:09
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
6⤊
4⤋
this link explains why we know it is condemning homosexuality, even though it does not use that specific term.
http://www.becomingreal.org/faith/theology.htm
I did not want to cut/paste it all, so just click.
Also, Adam & Eve (one man, one woman)
were placed into the Garden of
Eden by God. That was setting a standard on relationships that were sexual in nature.
I thought the question would be easy to answer at first & I am glad to have heard another view, because I did not realize there was such an argument about the nitpicking of the word's translation: homosexuality...
Anyhoo, the link above is one I picked,because it is thorough & addresses all the scriptures that we usually use.
So, again, thank you for that intuition. I did a good job of being objective, right? Well, I tried anyway. I am not judging anyone, ok? That is Jesus & God's job.
1 Cor. 6:9 What! Do YOU not know that unrighteous persons will not inherit God’s kingdom? Do not be misled. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men kept for unnatural purposes, nor men who lie with men, 10 nor thieves, nor greedy persons, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit God’s kingdom.
2007-07-02 17:52:33
·
answer #2
·
answered by ? 6
·
2⤊
1⤋
The translations do not matter, even if you are referring to the specific word "homosexual" which is translated from a Greek phrase from the original Greek text. The concept is still condemned even without using the word "homosexual". It is plain to see that it is wrong, no matter which translation you choose to read.
Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God. And such were some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God (1 Corinthians 6:9-11). The word for "homosexuals" comes from the Greek phrase which means "men having sexual relations." For this reason God gave them up to vile passions. For even their women exchanged the natural use for what is against nature. Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due (Romans 1:26,27). Note the words Paul uses in this passage: "vile," "against nature," "shameful," "error." These are not words of approval. In the context, Paul is discussing the unrighteousness of the Gentiles (Romans 1:18). But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully, knowing this: that the law is not made for a righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, for the ungodly and for sinners, for the unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, For fornicators, for sodomites, for kidnappers, for liars, for perjurers, and if there is any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine (1 Timothy 1:8-10). In verse 10, Paul mentions the "sodomite." This is the same Greek word that is used in 1 Corinthians 6:9 translated "homosexual."
2007-07-02 17:58:06
·
answer #3
·
answered by TG 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
First Corinthians 6:9 mentions "homosexual offenders" in a long list of people who will not inherit the kingdom of God. This passage seems clear --until the discussions begin about the exact meaning of the original Greek word.
Does "arsenokoitai" refer to lustful, uncommitted male prostitution or to a loving, permanent relationship? The literal meaning is "a male who lies with a male." There are no qualifications. All homosexual behavior is forbidden, no matter what degree of love or lust is involved.
2007-07-02 17:57:50
·
answer #4
·
answered by Buff 6
·
1⤊
1⤋
Lev 20:13 qui dormierit c um masculo coitu femineo uterque operati sunt nefas morte moriantur sit sanguis eorum super eos
Lev 18:22 c um masculo non commisceberis coitu femineo quia abominatio est
1Cr 6:9 an nescitis quia iniqui regnum Dei non possidebunt nolite errare neque fornicarii neque idolis servientes neque adulteri
2007-07-02 17:52:38
·
answer #5
·
answered by t_rex_is_mad 6
·
0⤊
1⤋
You seem like a pretty angry person who does not really care what the Bible says, since you don't want to be responsible for your actions. It is in Leviticus and just so you know there are many sins we all commit every day.
2007-07-02 17:57:43
·
answer #6
·
answered by Phoebe 4
·
2⤊
0⤋
The fundies will say 1 Corinthians 6:9...eventhough, the word homosexual was not around in Biblical days...
however, what the fundies conveniantly overlook is that this same verse also says adulterers, which we learn in Luke are divorced people....will not inherit the kingdom of God.
Somehow , the fundies rail on the supposed "gay" part of this verse, but overlook the divorced part of this verse....
If 50% of people are divorced and 10% are gay...not a lot of people left for heaven...especially by the time you take out the obese/gluttons, the bankrupt/stealing ones too.
2007-07-02 17:44:01
·
answer #7
·
answered by G.C. 5
·
4⤊
2⤋
I have never read the book of big fat lies, neither translated into English, paraphrased, or in the original language.
Is that the book that told you there's no God, or that blasphemy's ok, or "if it feels good, do it"?
2007-07-02 17:46:12
·
answer #8
·
answered by doppler 5
·
0⤊
2⤋
I never Read the big fat book of lies, But in the Bible it is written in the third book Leviticus: Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman, for it is detestable.
2007-07-02 17:44:08
·
answer #9
·
answered by dee 2
·
2⤊
4⤋
I don't know what the book of big fat lies is.
But in the Bible, literal translation, it is condemed. Old and New Testaments.
2007-07-02 17:44:09
·
answer #10
·
answered by Misty 7
·
3⤊
4⤋
Thanks to all of the atheists who answered this saying it doesn't, even though they've "read the Bible through many times".
Check 1 Corinthians 6:9...if that doesn't suffice, Romans 1:27.
Somehow, they'll attempt to come around this one.
2007-07-02 17:45:38
·
answer #11
·
answered by Mr. A 4
·
4⤊
2⤋