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Both Jews and Arabs are Semitic. Yet when someone refers to Anti-Semitism they only talk about bias, hatred, or violence against Jews. Why not call that Anti-Jewishness or something of the like when [Anti-Semitism] means exactly what it says?

2007-07-01 10:04:50 · 11 answers · asked by Cognitive Dissident ÜberGadfly 3 in Politics & Government Politics

11 answers

Because until recently, the West didn't have very much exposure to Arabs, excluding the presence in Spain over six hundred years ago. The only anti-Semitism that existed in any substantial way was directed toward Jews. And now that's just what the phrase means, even though you're correct that Jews aren't the only Semites.

2007-07-01 10:16:40 · answer #1 · answered by TheOrange Evil 7 · 3 1

I never realised that Semitics are both Arabs and Jews. I looked it up in my dictionary and you are right. Semitic is a language family to which both Hebrew and Arabic belong. I think this isn't as much a political question as a language question. Probably we started using the word only for anti-jewishness because anti-jewishness occured more at that time than anti-Arabism. That's not the case anymore... Nowadays I guess there is hardly anyone who realises what the word means litteraly. It's interesting to know though!

2007-07-01 10:30:11 · answer #2 · answered by Maan 1 · 1 0

Because even though you are right and that all Arabs and Jews are Semitic peoples, the Arabs have established themselves and the Jews have separated themselves by virtue of Religion. For this reason, the standard has been to refer to Jews as Semites and the Arabs as Muslim and sometimes as Hemites. They are However all Semitic in origin and are all traceable to the very same tribal peoples of Chaldea or Babylon.

EDIT: You know, Germans have to cope with a lot of bigotry, ignorance and hatred. I had to fight with it just today on this forum and lately so let's all of us take a reality check.

2007-07-01 10:26:15 · answer #3 · answered by kjh4129 3 · 1 0

I would think Anti-Arabism would count as Anti-Semitism - if the dictionaries are limiting that definition to only Jews, I would think the etymology is severely flawed - is it because something like the Holocaust never happened to the Arabs? That only Jews are the "sacred" people worthy of protection?

2007-07-01 10:39:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Interesting. Technically you are correct (all decendents of Shem, son of Noah) but later it became that they only refer to Semites as people near the Nile Delta who later became the leaders of the new nation and religion of Judea and Judaism.

'The Semitic population developed a widespread maritime trade and became the first great seafaring people. That group of Hebrews that had been diverted through Sinai into the Nile delta settled at last with other Semitic inhabitants in Palestine. These southern or Judean Hebrews became the leaders of a new nation and religion (see Jews and Judaism).'

2007-07-01 10:18:00 · answer #5 · answered by Eisbär 7 · 0 0

anti-semitism meanes act of hate and violence againest jews any where in the world . its true arabs and jews are both simitic but the violence and hatered acts were commited againest jews through differenet time in the history, when they were excpelled from the middle east thousand of yeares ago. as they escaped to new countries they prefered to live in ghitos and could not be essimilated in the new socities. but arabs did not know immigration till very recently.

2007-07-01 10:52:49 · answer #6 · answered by snohi 1 · 0 1

interior the 1st century CE. There are writings from historians interior the resultant centuries that element out the jews had no qualms with asserting they killed jesus. no rely if or no longer that's suited or if it substitute into propaganda on the area of apologists is an open question. different than for that questionable ingredient, extremely this is been the catholic church it relatively is perpetuated the suggestion that the jews killed jesus, perpetuating the blood libel, driving and justifying the inquisition, and inciting pogroms. an exciting little actuality is that still to on the 2d in loads of eating places and in own properties as a sign of hospitality in spain upon sitting down at your table you would be served a mix of somewhat loads of cured hams and different beef products. This is going decrease back to and alter into as quickly as began throughout the time of the spanish inquisition. If the character being served refused to eat or may well be pronounced to have eaten the beef products in a fashion no longer as much as eagerly this was once info adequate that they've have been given to be jewish and for them to be tortured, then flayed alive, then burned.

2016-10-03 08:54:23 · answer #7 · answered by gerking 4 · 0 0

did you know that the Jews and Arabs are the same?but the difference is not blood , but, Religion, by carefully reading biblical history you will find they are one and the same,they both came from Abraham, but their mother was Hagar a Ethiopian, neither was completely white as was Abraham and Sarah, look at any pure blooded Jew and you will see he is dark and swarthy, the Jews have integrated with every nationality that they have encountered therefore many don't have the Arabic stature, but, the Arabs asked them several years ago why are you killing us we are your brothers,is this another Cain and Able episode???

2007-07-01 10:34:44 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Here's a radical idea: Let's spend the time erasing prejudical feelings and behaviors in ALL their forms, rather than on differentiating the nuances of hate and bigotry?

What do you think? Any chance of that happening at all?

Anti-Semitism is generally thought of to mean attacks against Jews. To want to change that (for what reason. "Political Correctness"?) is sorta like picking gnat poop out of pepper.

2007-07-01 10:12:27 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 4

Arabs are not Semites. Neither are Persians.

2007-07-01 10:19:35 · answer #10 · answered by ? 6 · 0 8

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