ok in exodus chapter 21 it says "If a man sells his daughter as a female slave, she is not to go free as the male slaves do." basically its saying its alright to sell my daughter into slavery.
so my question is why is THIS in the bible.
2007-06-29 16:05:14 · 9 answers · asked by David Garcia 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
then dosen't that make the bible obsolete if it doesn't go with what people think today?
2007-06-29 16:15:35 · update #1
Hmm... I thought the bible was the infallible word of god? And I thought god was perfect? If he is so perfect, wouldn't he have forbidden them from doing any form of slavery? It doesn't matter WHEN or WHERE it was, it's still wrong.
2007-06-29 16:37:58 · answer #1 · answered by theSleepingMan 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I read exodux 21:7-11 that you referenced. It appears to me that women who were sold into slavery by their fathers were considered special and were not merely slaves in the same sense the word is used today, but as a selected woman for the master or his sons. It states that if such a woman is not pleasing to the master that she must be allowed to be redeemed (her father can buy her back) but she can not be sold to a foreigner as a slave. It also states that if for any reason the master takes another as his wife, he must not deprive the first woman (slave sold by her father) of clothing, food, and marital rights and if he does not provide her with these things she is free to go...without any need for repayment.
Perhaps this was simply a custom of the day. (Someone buying a woman for his wife or a wife for his son) but it speaks of the responsibilities of the master toward the woman but does not mention that she owes him anything. I find this similar to the new testament writings regarding marriage that basically says that woman are to be submissive to a man but that the man MUST love her as Christ loved the church (believers). I personally feel that God has placed women on a pedestal...always telling the man he was responsible for her well being (and her mistakes as in the case of Eve)
2007-06-29 23:20:40 · answer #2 · answered by Poohcat1 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because that is how it was done when the bible was written. How does this prove God does or does not exist? When you get a pimple do you kill yourself? Of course not, you don't throw out the whole thing because parts are bad. I have read the ten commandments, and they don't seem that unreasonable.
2007-06-29 23:23:05 · answer #3 · answered by blibityblabity 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
believers are just going to make up a big song and dance about how well that was how it was back then
their explanations are crappy
read in verse 20 and 21 for a night cap
disgusting
2007-06-29 23:09:06 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It's in the Bible because that was the culture of that ancient society. It doesn't mean we have that understanding today, or read that and say "yes, that's what God wants." It was those people's understanding of everyday life.
2007-06-29 23:11:53 · answer #5 · answered by keri gee 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it's not supposed to go inline with what people think. that was the law back then. and christians don't live under the law anymore. if you are not a christian you wont understand because the bible says that you cannot explain godly things to a worldly man because he will not understand.
2007-06-29 23:26:06 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
In context, this was a law to the Jews around 1000BC. Unless you fit the Jewish pre-Christ demographic, it does not apply to you.
2007-06-29 23:20:03 · answer #7 · answered by 87GN 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because the man who bought her has FULL responsibility for her just as if he has married her.
2007-06-29 23:19:06 · answer #8 · answered by Michael B 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
that was old testament Jewish law
2007-06-29 23:09:40 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋