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My last question for the day. See you all tomorrow.
God bless!

2007-06-29 15:16:46 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Food for thought and to add details to my question.

Consider a child below the age of reason. By definition he can’t sin, since sinning requires the ability to reason and the ability to intend to sin. This is indicated by Paul later in the letter to the Romans when he speaks of the time when Jacob and Esau were unborn babies as a time when they "had done nothing either good or bad" (Rom. 9:11).

In the beginning, God created Adam, Eve, and the angels without sin, but none were equal to God. Most of the angels never sinned, and all souls in heaven are without sin. This does not detract from the glory of God, but manifests it by the work he has done in sanctifying his creation. Sinning does not make one human. On the contrary, it is when man is without sin that he is most fully what God intends him to be.

We also know of another very prominent exception to the rule: Jesus (Heb. 4:15). So if Paul’s statement in Romans 3 includes an exception for the New Adam (Jesus), one may arg

2007-06-29 15:26:22 · update #1

So if Paul’s statement in Romans 3 includes an exception for the New Adam (Jesus), one may argue that an exception for the New Eve (Mary) can also be made.

2007-06-29 15:28:57 · update #2

Lone Ranger
Is the Bible the sole infallible guide to Christian doctrine and practice. Please show me in the Bible where it says that. And please use a formal equivalence translation if you find a verse which says so.

2007-06-29 15:35:32 · update #3

Lone Ranger
Your quotes do not say the Bible IS THE ONLY source of Christian doctrine and practice. You also took the verses out of context.
Peace!

2007-06-30 14:01:44 · update #4

13 answers

because we inherit the stain of original sin from our parents. Obviously Christ did not inherit sin from his father, but what about his mother? Just as the Church teaches, she was saved in advance (should present no problem for a Calvinist) and preserved from original sin so that she could be the spotless vessel which would bring forth the Messiah. Mary was a potential sinner like Eve, but not an actual sinner like Eve. The reason God didn't do this for Christ is because then he would have needed a Savior and would, in turn, have been excluded from being the Messiah.

2007-06-30 04:47:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Here's the thing: If Mary had original sin, then the human material she contributed to Jesus' existence would be 'carrying' that, and would have to to be 'cleansed' by the Holy Spirit. But if that happened, it could not be said that Jesus was totally without sin since the human material had had it and had been cleansed from it.
So we have to 'push back" the moment of sinlessness to Mary, so that when timie comes for the cojnception of Jesus the human material is 'ready.'


It seems to me that God would be likely to pick one of two kinds of women to be his mother: an extraordinarily holy one or an extraordinarily unholy one. For example, if Christ had chosen to be born of a prostitute, it could make the point that God can reach fallen humanity even in the worst of its condition. However, we know that he didn't choose to do that, which points us to the other option: an extraordinarily holy woman.

There are no limits to God's ability to grant holiness to someone, and thus if he chooses to make someone extraordinarily holy, he has the power to make the person totally holy. That would be the kind of mother that would be fitting for the Son of God, and thus that's the kind of mother that God chose to make Mary.


It seems to me, after all the questions posted about Mary in all forums, that Protestants are afraid, not to mention jealous, which is just nuts.

2007-06-29 23:39:16 · answer #2 · answered by SpiritRoaming 7 · 1 0

Abel that is a good question ,the answer to it is that the Jews had to have the offering without blemish whatsoever.Jesus was without blemish as He was the Lamb that was slain for us and hence Mary.
I do not agree with your statement that all souls in Heaven were sinless though because the redeemed have undergone purification.St Augustine as you know was a self-acknowledged sinner.
Thank you.

2007-06-29 20:35:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Not a sinless mother. A virgin. Mary was a virgin until after Jesus was born. Mary did not have sex with a man until after Jesus was born. The virgin birth of Christ means that the curse of sin that is passed on through the seed of man was not passed on to Jesus. Well also Jesus birth is a direct miricle of God.

2007-06-29 15:23:23 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Abel you are wrong on your premise. Mary, as with all humans save one, was a sinner. Jesus had to be born of woman to be considered human and a Jew, but he was neither of her egg or man's seed that is how is sinless and not under original sin. Debate the last all you wish but any way you slice Mary was obedient but still a sinner.

2007-06-29 15:25:32 · answer #5 · answered by crimthann69 6 · 1 2

Again, Mary was not without sin. Read your Bible instead of Catholic Dogma!

The truth about Catholicism:

http://www.cbcg.org/twobaby/twobaby.htm

Edit to Abel: Why bother using a Bible? You do not believe in it anyways. The truth about Catholicism from history and the scriptures is overwhelming. You are a convert from one form of Catholicism to another,(Presbyterianism to Catholicism) neither of which believe that the Bible has any real relevance for doctrine when it opposes the importance of following your own traditions. Your own posts convict you:

Matthew 15:9 But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.(KJV)

The original Church of God was considered just another sect of Judaism until the continued uprisings in Judea against Roman rule made it unpalatable to be identified in any way shape or form as Jewish.

Proverbs 30:6 Make no addition to his words, or he will make clear your error, and you will be seen to be false.(BBE)

2Timothy 3:16 every Writing is God-breathed, and profitable for teaching, for conviction, for setting aright, for instruction that is in righteousness, (Youngs Literal Translation)

If you want to follow man-breathed instead of God-Breathed, be my guest!

2007-06-29 15:23:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

If Mary EVER sinned, than Satan had a valid claim on her and all her offspring.

If Satan had a valid claim on Christ, than Jesus could not have been the Messiah, and Jesus certainly could not have been God.

Case closed.

2007-06-29 17:40:43 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Mary was not sinless. She was obedient and willing to be used by God.

2007-06-29 15:27:00 · answer #8 · answered by charmaine f 5 · 3 1

He didn't. The verses I posted in the other Inter-Faith post show that there was no way he could have had one.

2007-06-29 15:46:52 · answer #9 · answered by Machaira 5 · 0 1

marry was 100% human NOT sinless

2007-06-29 15:23:37 · answer #10 · answered by emma 2 · 1 1

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