Genesis 3:15
No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the first scriptural passage which contains the promise of the redemption, mentions also the Mother of the Redeemer. The sentence against the first parents was accompanied by the Earliest Gospel (Proto-evangelium), which put enmity between the serpent and the woman: "and I will put enmity between thee and the woman and her seed; she (he) shall crush thy head and thou shalt lie in wait for her (his) heel" (Genesis 3:15). The translation "she" of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically. The conqueror from the seed of the woman, who should crush the serpent's head, is Christ; the woman at enmity with the serpent is Mary. God puts enmity between her and Satan in the same manner and measure, as there is enmity between Christ and the seed of the serpent. Mary was ever to be in that exalted state of soul which the serpent had destroyed in man, i.e. in sanctifying grace. Only the continual union of Mary with grace explains sufficiently the enmity between her and Satan. The Proto-evangelium, therefore, in the original text contains a direct promise of the Redeemer, and in conjunction therewith the manifestation of the masterpiece of His Redemption, the perfect preservation of His virginal Mother from original sin.
Luke 1:28
The salutation of the angel Gabriel -- chaire kecharitomene, Hail, full of grace (Luke 1:28) indicates a unique abundance of grace, a supernatural, godlike state of soul, which finds its explanation only in the Immaculate Conception of Mary. But the term kecharitomene (full of grace) serves only as an illustration, not as a proof of the dogma.
Other texts
From the texts Proverbs 8 and Ecclesiasticus 24 (which exalt the Wisdom of God and which in the liturgy are applied to Mary, the most beautiful work of God's Wisdom), or from the Canticle of Canticles (4:7, "Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is not a spot in thee"), no theological conclusion can be drawn. These passages, applied to the Mother of God, may be readily understood by those who know the privilege of Mary, but do not avail to prove the doctrine dogmatically, and are therefore omitted from the Constitution "Ineffabilis Deus". For the theologian it is a matter of conscience not to take an extreme position by applying to a creature texts which might imply the prerogatives of God.
Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception of Mary, namely that she was filled with grace from the very moment of her conception in her mother's womb and preserved from the stain of original sin. The Roman Rite of the Catholic Church has a liturgical feast by that name. The corresponding feast in other rites may go by other names, such as, in the Byzantine Rite, the Feast of the Conception by St. Anna of the Most Holy Theotokos. However, the dogma of the Immaculate Conception is part of the teaching of the Catholic Church, and the title of "The Immaculate Conception" has been given to many Eastern Catholic church buildings, including the cathedral in Detroit of the Ukrainian Greek Catholic Church[18]
Eastern Orthodox tend to reject the Immaculate Conception, principally because their understanding of ancestral sin (the Greek term corresponding to the Latin "original sin") differs[citation needed] from that of the Roman Catholic Church, but also on the basis that without original sin (i.e. fallen human nature), Mary would have likewise been separated from the rest of us by a special condition. Some Orthodox believe that Mary was conceived like any one of us, inherited the sin of Adam, but was cleansed from it when Christ (God incarnate) took form within her. This, coupled with the belief that she never committed any sin made her the perfect vessel. Nevertheless, this remains an area on which the Orthodox Church has not made any definitive statement, so a variety of views may be found.
Most Protestants reject the idea that Mary was saved from sin from her very first moment, since this is impossible according to Protestant theology and, in their view, lacks scriptural warrant.
In the Constitution Ineffabilis Deus of 8 December, 1854, Pius IX pronounced and defined that the Blessed Virgin Mary "in the first instance of her conception, by a singular privilege and grace granted by God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin."
2007-06-29 11:50:55
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answer #1
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answered by hairypotto 6
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The immaculate birth of Mary is not a Biblical teaching. The Bible teaches the miraculous virgin conception of Jesus Christ, not the immaculate conception of Mary.
The Bible nowhere describes Mary as anything but an ordinary human female whom God chose to be the mother of the Lord Jesus Christ. Mary was undoubtedly a godly woman (Luke 1:28). Mary was surely a wonderful wife and mother. Jesus definitely loved and cherished His mother (John 19:27). The Bible gives us no reason to believe that Mary was sinless. In fact, the Bible gives us every reason to believe that Jesus Christ is the only Person who was not “infected” by sin and never committed a sin (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5).
I just looked up the word immaculate in the dictionary. It means without spot or blemish, Unstained. When we accept Jesus Christ as our Lord and Savior we become immaculate to God!
2007-06-29 01:35:12
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answer #2
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answered by 4HIM- Christians love 7
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You are right, nowhere in the Bible does it say that she had an immaculate birth. However, the immaculate conception is a different story. Open a Bible to the book of St. Matthew 1:18 and you will read this: Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. 19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily. 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins.
I rest my case.
2007-06-29 01:49:03
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answer #3
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answered by Call Me Babs 5
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It's not there if are you talking about Mary's birth. Or are you talking about Jesus' birth? Be specific. If Jesus refer to Luke Chapter 1 verses 26-35.
2007-06-29 01:28:59
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answer #4
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answered by MMM 4
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It's in Luke, chapter two. The angel told Mary that she was going to have a baby. Mary said, "How? I'm a virgin!" The angel told her that the baby would be conceived by the Holy Spirit, and would in effect be the Son of God.
The angel then appeared to Joseph and said "take her as your wife, but don't have sex with her until the baby is born."
That's a paraphrase, but an accurate one.
If by "immaculate birth" you mean that she remained physically "intact" after delivering a baby, the Bible doesn't say that, and I have no reason to believe it to be true. I also have no scriptural reason to believe she was "ever virgin." The angel told Joseph not to have sex with her until after the baby was born. If he'd meant "never," he'd have said "never."
Edit: if the case you're making is that there is no evidence that Mary herself was completely free from sin from the moment of her conception or birth, then I agree with you. Some pope decided that there had to be an explanation of how Jesus could be perfect if He was born of a human being. So they decided Mary must've been perfect. By that logic, both of Mary's parents must also have been perfect... if Jesus wouldn't have been perfect having been born of God and a fallible woman, how would Mary have been perfect if both of her parents were fallible humans? Ergo, THEIR parents must also have been perfect, and on and on. There is no logic there. If God could preserve Mary from the "stain of original sin," He could certainly preserve Himself from it. The Immaculate Conception of Mary seems to me to be simply a ploy to appease those who needed a mother/goddess figure to adore. So if that's your "case," then I totally agree.
2007-06-29 01:23:14
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answer #5
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answered by hoff_mom 4
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Hi Milkweed,
Not sure if this is a trick question or what, based on the wording you chose to use. An immaculate "birth"? I don't see that. An immaculate "conception"... while the exact wording might not be there, we see in Luke 1...
"And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Miriam: for thou hast found favor with Elohim. And behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name 'Yahshua'. He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Most High: and Yahweh Elohim shall give unto him the throne of his father David: and he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.'
And Miriam said unto the angel, 'How shall this be, seeing I know not [have not had sexual relations with] a man?'
And the angel answered and said unto her, 'The Ruach HaKodesh shall come upon thee, and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee: wherefore also the holy thing which is begotten shall be called the Son of Yahweh. And behold, Elisabeth thy kinswoman, she also hath conceived a son in her old age; and this is the sixth month with her that was called barren. For no word from Elohim shall be void of power.' "
I hope this helps. =)
Donimus
2007-06-29 01:32:28
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answer #6
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answered by Donimus 2
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It is not there! Jesus is the only perfect one.
Furthermore, Mary is not to be worshiped or prayed to. Jesus is the only one between us and the Father and Jesus said he and the Father were one.
Consider these responses of Jesus...
When Jesus was teaching, his mother Mary and some of his brothers arrived and the crowd thinking it would be a big deal to Jesus, told him they were present. Jesus answered by saying "My mother and brothers are those who hear God's word and put it into practice." Luke 8:21
At another time...
As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, "Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you." He replied, "Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it." Luke 11:27-28
2007-06-29 01:30:01
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answer #7
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answered by Joy 2
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It's pretty clear around Matthew 1:22-23 and Luke 1:26 that Mary was a virgin when she conceived, whatever that meant. Actually, it doesn't make Christ one bit more or less who he is regardless of his mother's virginity when she conceived or when she gave birth, although I can imagine that it was extremely humiliating for her until she got married. It's just a smokescreen to divert those who like to focus on irrelevant details instead of the main event. Really, what difference does it make if she was a flaming hooker? Christ is still Christ is still Christ, not his mother. His reality is still his reality whether his mother was the prime minister or a night soil bucket carrier. Again, it trivializes the real story, which is that Christ was a new universal educator who carried the message of Moses forward and who carried civilization forward, to focus on such incidental details. Again, it's a trap to flush out the pure hearted.
2007-06-29 01:23:17
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answer #8
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answered by jaicee 6
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Matthew 1:18
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
(before they came together means before they had sex)
Matthew 1:23
23. Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
Luke 1:26-13
26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,
27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.
28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
29 And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be.
30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
Granted the bible does not once mention the word immaculate however, it does clearly explain that his mother was Mary and she was a virgin when she became pregnant. I hope this clarifies your thoughts on the issue.
2007-06-29 01:29:49
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answer #9
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answered by HisWife 2
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Matthew 1:18 reads:"But the birth of Jesus Christ was in this way. During the time his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, she was found to be pregnant by holy spirit before they were united."
2007-06-29 01:25:04
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answer #10
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answered by rdb_tigers101 2
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