Singular or plural? Correct use of helping verbs, Is with 2nd form? English of by birth eunuch?

Question

1-Tell me which one is singular or plural in “Somebody, Everybody, Everyone, Someone”? Explain ur answers, Plz
2-Which one is correct: he does has? OR he does have? Explain ur answers, Plz
3-When to use, I will & I shall? Sometime I saw that will is used with I & we, when v can use will with I & we? Explain ur answers, Plz
4-Can v use did with had e.g. It did not had what, u want is that sentence correct? bcoz did do not support any verb other than 1st form of verb & had is used with past. Explain ur answers,Plz
5-Can v use “is” with 2nd form of verb, r following sentences correct: 1) He is accused of theft,2) he is afraid of death,3) he is charged of murder? When we can use is with 2nd form of verb. Explain ur answers, Plz
6-What is the English of a person who is by birth “eunuch”? Explain ur answers, Plz
And give me tips how can i improve my English and any good websites of Engish learning? Thank u in advance.

Answer 1

1) somebody and someone refers to one person and thus are singular. Everybody and everyone refer to more than one person thus plural.
2) The verb 'to do' can be used as an auxiliary (dummy auxiliary), one of their uses is negation, 'I DO not like' however when you use them in a negation structure without the 'not' particle you affirm the action 'I DO like' a sort of emphatic assertion. When you do that the dummy auxiliary is the one that takes the conjugation and the verb stays in infinitive, in your example:
He + 'to do' in present tense is 'he does'
and the infinitive of 'to have' is 'have' so the answer is:
'He does have'
3)will and shall are two of the 9 (10) auxiliary verbs in English, they can be used with all the persons. They are also modal verbs in the sense that they determine the intention of the sentence. 'will' indicates that the action is intended to happen.
'I will go' You are simply saying that you have every intention to go.
'shall' is an indication of duty.
'I shall go' Means that you are going to go but there are reasons behind it.
Modal verbs come in pairs (will/would) (shall/should) 'Should' is the conditional of shall but still infers that obligation sense just a little bit more clearly because it is used more commonly.
4)You have to study the dummy auxiliaries, it will make your life so much easier. 'to do' in past tense is 'did' and then it becomes the same casse of answer (2) 'I didn't have'
5) I think you are bitting a LOT more that what you can chew because you are mixing direct objects with past participles. I would sort those out first.

Answer 2

1- “Somebody, Everybody, Everyone, Someone”? They're all singular, there's no real explanation though.

2-Which one is correct: he does has? OR he does have?

He does have. The verb "do" takes all the inflection from the main verb and is always followed by the base form of the verb.

3-When to use, I will & I shall? Sometime I saw that will is used with I & we, when v can use will with I & we? Explain ur answers, Plz

I just always go with "will".

4-Can v use did with had e.g. It did not had what, u want

No, did already shows you it's past. It goes with the base form.


5-Can v use “is” with 2nd form of verb, r following sentences correct: 1) He is accused of theft,2) he is afraid of death,3) he is charged of murder? When we can use is with 2nd form of verb. Explain ur answers, Plz

They're not really the 2nd form. They're the third form, but happen to look like the 2nd. This is passive voice, "to be" in whatever form is required + third form (past participle). Although "afraid" is a simple adjective, not a verb at all, and also it's "charged with" not "charged of".

6-What is the English of a person who is by birth “eunuch”? Explain ur answers, Plz

Don't know what you mean. Eunuchs are made (castrated) not born.

Answer 3

1- somebody and someone are singular, they mean one person. everybody and everyone are plural, they mean all the people,so this is plural.

2-If one of the two is correct, it's "he does have" though you don't need to say "he DOES have, you just say "he has" and it's the same meaning and correct. It's present simple tense, and this is how it's formed: Subject (I,you,he,she....Maria,Nick etc.) + verb (here: have) which changes in the third person (he,she,it) usually by putting an "s" at the end (eat-->eats, drink-->drinks-depending on the spelling of the verb-or
have-->has).

3- I and we are first person, you (singular and plural) are second person and he, she, it and they are third person.
For formal English, there is a rule which states that in the Future Simple, "shall" should be used in the first person, and "will" should be used in the second and third person.
So, the Future Simple of the verb "to drive" would be like this:
I shall drive
you will drive
he will drive
she will drive
it will drive
we shall drive
they will drive

4-You can't say "I did not had". It should be "I did not have" because it's Past Simple tense and in the negative and question form (where you use did) the verb has to stay without the -d or -ed ending (or any changes if it's irregular) as it would be in the affirmative.
Example: "I had breakfast in the morning"
"I did not (or didn't) have breakfast in the morning"
"Did I have breakfast in the morning?"

5-The sentences you have here, are correct. The first and the third are passive voice.I think that the only mistake is "charged of", it has to be "charged with".

6-Sorry, I don't understand your question..