How do Christians explain...?

Question

In the King James (Translated from Greek) version of the Bible, it quotes Jesus as saying, "God, why has thou forsaken Me?" when Jesus was on the cross.

In the Lamsa (Translated from Aramaic) version Jesus says, "For this I have been Saved"

It has been confirmed that Jesus spoke Aramaic and not Greek, but my confusion is with the King James version that has Christ, a God-Realized being questioning his beloved God. Whats that all about?

This is a topic rarely discussed, so I'd like to hear any reasonable thoughts.

Answer 1

Perhaps the key to the translation rests in the intention/context of the phrase used? For instance, maybe "For this I have been saved" was kinda like "I stuck around for THIS? WTF?!?!!?" Of course, on the same note, when Thomas the Train said "I think I can" maybe he was trying to fart, not climb the hill...

Answer 2

Rarely discussed ? I think not. And, of course Jesus spoke Aramaic, that's apparent. When He left at the age of twelve to study with the "teachers" in the desert this was their language. He entered history again at 33 years old. Why would anyone think Jesus spoke "Greek" if there was a Greek state then?

He questions His Father "Why has thou forsaken me" when He made His own decision to die on the cross for mankind, so it was His decision, Not Gods, His Fathers. In this manner both He was saved and He saved mankind.

Answer 3

Here is the word: "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani"

Is usually translated: "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"

(ē'lī, lā'mə sābăk'thənī; ā'lē, lä'mä säbäkh'thänē) or Eloi, Eloi, lama sabach-thani? (ē'loi; ā'loi) [Eli, Eloi: Heb. or Aramaic,=Lord; lama sabachthani?: Aramaic,=why hast thou forsaken me?], in the New Testament, words of Jesus on the cross. The Greek text retains and translates the original, which is seemingly a quotation of Psalm 22.


Psalm 22:1
My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring?


Jesus is dying..... He feels the sting of death and God does not intervene. Keep in mind, he prayed before to have this "Cup pass from me"...... But, God sent angels to give him strength to go through with the task of being persecuted.

Here, The scripture is only confirming the Old Testament prophecy written in Psalms, that he would cry out to God in that last hour. It was fulfilled - he fulfilled the Old Testament!!! That is why you see it there!! - His next cry, yielded up the last breath!


Your sister,
Ginger

Answer 4

I have thought about that myself. I think what we forget is that Jesus was, as Isaiah said, "marred more than any other man at his death". He was the Son of God but He was also in the flesh and at that point, a very mangled tortured flesh. I cut Him a little slack for that. I also think either for His testing or because the Father couldn't bear to see His Son being tortured and murdered like that, that the Father may have turned away from Him for a time and Jesus, always feeling Him with Him sensed that. Those are my thoughts.

Answer 5

As far as I was taught, all through the final daus of his life, God protected and supported Jesus, to help him endure the pain etc.
Right before Jesus died, God remove this 'invisible shield' (for want of a better term) to prove that Jesus would not waive or renounce God, if left on him own.
Kind of like getting you teeth drilled without anesthetic.
But that's just what I was taught, a long, long time ago...I don't know what others believe

Answer 6

The Catholic Encyclopedia states Bible is Skeptic and Concocted
A. THE FORMATION OF THE NEW TESTAMENT CANON (A.D. 100-220)
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm
The idea of a complete and clear-cut canon of the New Testament existing from the beginning, that is from Apostolic times, has no foundation in history. The Canon of the New Testament, like that of the Old, is the result of a development, of a process at once stimulated by disputes with doubters, both within and without the Church, and retarded by certain obscurities and natural hesitations, and which did not reach its final term until the dogmatic definition of the Tridentine Council. ("Canon of the New Testament")
There is a lot of confusion about the earliest existing texts of the Bible. The oldest extant manuscript of the Bible is believed to be the Codex Vaticanus, (preserved in the Vatican Library), which is slightly older than the Codex Sinaiticus (preserved in the British Library), both of which were transcribed in the fourth century.
As for the story of Jesus, there were at least 50 gospels written in the first and second century CE. Four of them (Mathew, Mark, Luke, and John) were included in the official canon during the fourth century CE and are found today in every Bible. All of the original copies of the gospels were lost. What we have now are handwritten copies, which are an unknown number of replications removed from the originals.
Rudolf Bultmann, a prominent 20th-century professor of New Testament studies writes about the life of Jesus:
We can now know almost nothing concerning the life and personality of Jesus, since the early Christian sources show no interest in either, are moreover fragmentary and often legendary; and other sources about Jesus do not exist. (Bultmann 8)
Example of Confliction in Bible
II Samuel 8:4 (vs) II Samuel 8:9-10 II Kings 8:26
II Samuel 6:23 Genesis 6:3 John 5:37
John 5:31 I Chronicles 18:4 I Chronicles 18:9-10
II Chronicles 22:2 II Samuel 21:8 Genesis 9:29
John 14:9 John 8:14

Why Word Inspired by God (Bible) has three genealogies of Jesus pbuh.
How could the "inspired words" of God get the genealogy of Jesus incorrect (See Matthew 1:6-16 where it states 26 forefathers up to Prophet David, and Luke 3:23-31 says 41 in number). Or for that matter, give a genealogy to Jesus who had NO father?

There is difference of centuries between II Kings 19:1-37 and Isaiah 37:1-38.Why both has same verses.
See II Kings 19:1-37, now read Isaiah 37:1-38. Why is it that the words of these verse are identical? Yet they have been attributed SAME WORDS to two different authors, one unknown and the other is Isaiah, who are centuries apart; and yet, the Christians have claimed these books to be inspired by God.

Answer 7

First ...The bible states that jesus is god and the son of god. Why would he need to ask why god had forsaken him? He is god and should already know what's going on. He's not god but his son and again should already know what's going on.

So again,
God is imaginary and doesn't exist.
The bible is nothing more than a book of delusions.
Jesus was a con artist and a good one for his time.

Answer 8

Hey there!.
When Jesus said, 'My, God, my God why have you forsaken me?', He was actually fufilling prophecy (Scripture). Look at Psalm 22:1....Jesus was fufilling what David wrote.

I hope this helps!
God bless you!

In Christ,
Randz

Answer 9

It is easy to understand as long as you are outside of the Christian faith. From an atheist viewpoint or any non-Christian viewpoint it is easy to see that despite its small historical value the bible is man made, and like everything man made it has flaws. That is a good example of one of them.

Answer 10

Ask for the Holy Ghost to come on to you and teach you in the way of God.