2007-06-27 03:34:12 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus died a decade before the first book in the new testament was written, so the story of conceptin is a very third party observation, maybe speculation
2007-06-27 03:36:14 · answer #1 · answered by Fowl Language 5 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Dear heart, why? A pregnant 'virgin'? An invisible god, or a ghost, invading her egg with his (or her) invisible sperm? On this the Christian religion rests? Does nobody see the absurdities at play here?
2007-06-27 03:48:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
It was immaculate conception.
He could have used her eggs if He wanted. He can make everything new. He also used Mary's blood, Mary's vagina and so on.
2007-06-27 03:52:18 · answer #3 · answered by Nina, BaC 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The bible said he transferred Jesus into her womb
I think he was not of Marys eggs since he had to be 100% perfect.
Mary was used as an incubator.
Although it was important Jesus was born through Marys lineage.
2007-06-27 03:42:04 · answer #4 · answered by debbie2243 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
yes. The seed, however, belonged to the Holy Ghost
2007-06-27 03:37:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yes. He actually stayed for breakfast in the morning.
2007-06-27 03:41:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
More than likely, yes.
2007-06-27 03:38:05 · answer #7 · answered by Machaira 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
For an omelette?
2007-06-27 03:37:34 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
lol...virgin birth.
2007-06-27 03:37:30 · answer #9 · answered by -♦One-♦-Love♦- 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
DNA would prove.
2007-06-27 03:37:25 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋