Jehovah Witnesses: What do these verses mean to you?

Question

Isa 43:10 "You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "and my servant whom I have chosen, that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.
Isa 43:11 I, I am the LORD, and besides me there is no savior.


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Then what about these:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Joh 1:4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men.

The word LORD when it is in caps is the name Jehovah. They replace it in the Bible. So the verse would be: I, I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior.

Also, he said he was the servant he is sending. This was 200 years before Jesus.

johnusmaximus: Well, Obviously God isn't playing a costume game here. If there was a pigmy in africa that had never seen a white man, and I were to describe myself to him. Say I told him that I was 6ft tall, had blue eyes and blonde hair, and white.

He would recourse and say no.... people are dark skinned, have brown eyes, black hair, and people aren't 6ft tall...they are 4ft tall.

He would have to choose to believe me. God reveals himself to us in the Bible. For example another verse:


Remember lying Ananias?

Act 5:3 But Peter said, "Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the 'Holy Spirit' and to keep back for yourself part of the proceeds of the land?
Act 5:4 While it remained unsold, did it not remain your own? And after it was sold, was it not at your disposal? Why is it that you have contrived this deed in your heart? You have not lied to men but to 'God'."

See it said he was lying to the Holy Spirit, then it called the Holy Spirit God.

Jesus said that he was God:
Joh 8:57 So the Jews said to him, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?"
Joh 8:58 Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am."
Joh 8:59 So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.

I AM is the name of God. It is ego emi in the greek, in the Hebrew it would be YHWH ( or Jehovah).

Why would they stone him?

Again:

Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one."
Joh 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.
Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, "I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?"
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, "It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God."


In jewish culture:
Dogs have dogs, cats have cats, humans have humans, Gods have?

So they realized he was saying he was God, and said " you make yourself God".

And the word can't be a god, because In Isaiah 43:10 it said there is none other than Jehovah and after him there shall be none created. He either lied, or the Word is God, and the trinity right?

Also Jesus can't be the savior if he isn't God. Because Jehovah said there is no savior besides him. So now what?

word God in the old testament verses the new testament:

Ale (El) - אל - God or Majestrate sometimes even Power - Hebrew

Now in the scripture that I was referring to with John 1:1, it said that Jesus was: θεός

Now If you wanted that word to be magistrate, you would not have used theos as the word choice. Because that is the word they just described God himself with.

That greek word only has 2 meanings, Magistrate or God.

So Clearly in both pictures he is saying he is God, and the only God.

Now here:
Isa 45:5 I am the LORD, and there is no other, besides me there is no God; I equip you, though you do not know me,

He calls himself God, which can be the word Magistrate as well.
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Jesus has to be our savior, so why in Is.43:11 did he say he is the only one?

Act 4:11 This Jesus is the stone that was rejected by you, the builders, which has become the cornerstone.
Act 4:12 And there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given ...

יהוה - YHWH - also translated Jehovah. See when the Bible was translated from Greek to Latin, the Y became J because of the silent attributes in Latin and greek. When translated from German to English, it became a J sound. Hence Jehovah.

How can Jesus fulfill the Kinsman Redeemer law if he is not God? If he is not God, then he is not really related to us, right?

johnusmaximus1: I appreciate your time that you spent on this question. Does love not drive us to find a conclusion? Because who Jesus is, is fundamental for all things. When Thomas called Jesus his Lord and God, why did he not rebuke him?

When in revelations Jesus said that he is The Alpha and The Omega, the Beginning and the end, why would he not have separated himself from being God. Instead he used the names of God.

Well If Jesus was before all creation, and time which is a law was a creation, then Anything before time is God. Because he is. The very existence outside of time. Whether Jesus was a god in that verse or the God doesn't matter, because God has made perfectly clear that he is the only God, and never will there be another.

He says it all over the place.
Is. 45:5,
Isa 45:21 Declare and present your case; let them take counsel together! Who told this long ago? Who declared it of old? Was it not I, the LORD? And there is no other god besides me, a righteous God and a Savior; there is none besides me.
Isa 45:22 "Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the earth! For I am God, and there is no other.,
Is. 46:9, Deu 4:35 To you it was shown, that you might know that the LORD is God; there is no other besides him.

Deu 4:39 know therefore today, and lay it to your heart, that the LORD is God in heaven above and on the earth beneath; there is no other.

Even King Solomon, with the God given title of wisest Man to live said it:

1Ki 8:59 Let these words of mine, with which I have pleaded before the LORD, be near to the LORD our God day and night, and may he maintain the cause of his servant and the cause of his people Israel, as each day requires,
1Ki 8:60 that all the peoples of the earth may know that the LORD is God; there is no other.

Then you couldn't say God created everything if he didn't create Jesus. You can't say that Jesus was made, because it says

Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.

From the Jewish Greek Septuagint:
Exo 3:14 και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην εγω ειμι ο ων και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ ο ων απεσταλκεν με προς υμας

He says Ego Emi again which is I AM. "εγω ειμι"

And he made Moses like himself to Pharaoh:

Exo 7:1 And the LORD said to Moses, "See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet.

So yes, he was like God.

As for Ps. 82:6 and 7:
Obviously he is saying you are magistrates, or judges. See the law that Jesus is pointing at in John 10:35.

Exo 22:28 "You shall not revile God, nor curse a ruler of your people.

In Hebrew this reads: "You shall not revile the Gods, nor cure a ruler of your people." He was demonstrating authority that was given to all the Jews.

Psa 82:6 I said, "You are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you;
Psa 82:7 nevertheless, like men you shall die, and like princes.

מושׁיע -moya-shah - The word for Savior that is used in Judges 3:9 was also God at the time. If you look at the next verse, he had the Holy Spirit on him, but it was still God doing the work. He was still the Savior.

Jdg 3:9 But when the people of Israel cried out to the LORD, the LORD raised up a deliverer for the people of Israel, who saved them, Othniel the son of Kenaz, Caleb's younger brother.
Jdg 3:10 The Spirit of the LORD was upon him, and he judged Israel. He went out to war, and the LORD gave Cushan-rishathaim king of Mesopotamia into his hand. And his hand prevailed over Cushan-rishathaim.

A little more detail on Psalms 82. This was a psalm written to God in reference to unfair rulers.
Psa 82:6 I said, "You are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you;

It then continues, you will die like men though. Jesus in John 10:34, quotes it. Then continues "If he called them gods to whom the word of God came". Stop there, Jesus is the Word of God. In the beginning was the Word.. remember?

So it is the same as Jesus being in them.

2Co 13:5 Examine yourselves, to see whether you are in the faith. Test yourselves. Or do you not realize this about yourselves, that Jesus Christ is in you?--unless indeed you fail to meet the test!

Note that the writer didn't include himself, it was directed at a group of people that he was speaking to, Jesus points out who those people were. Those who received the Word.

Yes the Angel Of Jehovah would be Jehovah also. In particular references, like wrestling with Jacob, and Judges 13, where they said they saw God, etc.

Word of the Lord in Bible and Angel of the Lord in the Bible are all references to God See this question:

http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AngOsXX4KAAbsrGoPTdjlDUjzKIX?qid=20070419183311AAHG9TX

Also read the comments.

Exo 3:2 And the angel of the LORD appeared to him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush. He looked, and behold, the bush was burning, yet it was not consumed.

Angel of the Lord introduces himself as Jehovah.

Answer 1

It must be strange being in a Western culture where nearly all the people who say they are Christian believe in some form of trinity and yet there is this little group of bible students that don't. Why not just follow the crowd? - Mat 7:14

You have many questions so I will get to as many as I can.

Regarding Isa 43:10 - Shows that Jehovah has no equal, before him or after him. The bible freely
acknowledges the existence of "gods" who are dramatically inferior to Almighty Jehovah God. For example, the bible teaches that Satan is a god, and of course Jesus is a god.

(1 Corinthians 8:5,6) Even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father

Regarding Isa 43:11 - Jehovah is identified as the principal Savior, the only Source of deliverance. (Isa 43:11; 45:21) He was the Savior and Deliverer of Israel, time and again. (Ps 106:8, 10, 21; Isa 43:3; 45:15; Jer 14:8)

Along with his role as Savior, Jehovah is also the “Repurchaser.” (Isa 49:26; 60:16) In the past
he redeemed his people Israel from captivity. In delivering Christians from sin’s bondage, he does the repurchasing through his Son Jesus Christ (1Jo 4:14) Jesus Christ can rightly be called “our Savior,” even though he performs the salvation as the agent of Jehovah. (Tit 1:4; 2Pe 1:11)

Regarding John 1:1 - If Jesus is just another name for the Almighty God Jehovah creator then what he says goes. However, while on earth Jesus explained he is not God but a messenger for God. He served as his Father’s Spokesman, or Word, during his earthly ministry, he told his listeners: “I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak. . . . Therefore the things I speak, just as the Father has told me them, so I speak them.”—Joh 12:49, 50; 14:10; 7:16, 17.

John 1:1 - Shows the separation with the creator. "...and the word was with God [Almighty]. Jesus existed prior the heavens and earth (John 1:2) and took part in their creation, Joh 1:3 "All things were made through him"

Regarding John 8:58 - The question of the Jews (verse 57) to which Jesus was replying had to do with age, not identity. Jesus’ reply logically dealt with his age, the length of his existence. Interestingly, no effort is ever made to apply e‧go′ ei‧mi′ as a title to the holy spirit.

Why would they stone him?

John 8:37,40 - "I know that YOU are Abraham’s offspring; but YOU are seeking to kill me, because my word makes no progress among YOU. But now YOU are seeking to kill me, a man that has told YOU the truth that I heard from God."

They wanted to stone him because they did not believe he was the messenger from God.

Regarding Joh 10:30 - The oneness to which Jesus referred must be understood in harmony with the context of his statement. He was speaking of his works and his care of the “sheep” who would follow him. His works, as well as his words, demonstrated that there was unity, not disunity and disharmony, between him and his Father, a point his reply went on to emphasize. (Joh 10:25, 26, 37, 38; compare Joh 4:34; 5:30; 6:38-40; 8:16-18.)

Regarding Is. 43:10 - Jehovah says: “Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.” Does this mean that, because Jesus Christ is prophetically called “Mighty God” at Isaiah 9:6, Jesus must be Jehovah?

No. None of the idolatrous Gentile nations formed a god before Jehovah, because no one existed before Jehovah. Nor would they at a future time form any real, live god that was able to prophesy. (Isa. 46:9, 10)

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Regarding The'os - The word for “god” (Gr., the‧os′) in its second occurrence in the verse is significantly without the definite article “the” (Gr., ho). Thus Jesus is "a" god not "the" God. Only the Father is ‘God’ ([ho the‧os]; cf. 17:3); ‘the Son’ was subordinate to him (cf. 14:28).

John 1:1 speaks of divine beings that existed alongside and under God but were not identical with him. Phil 2:6-10 proves that. In that passage Paul depicts just such a divine being, who later became man in Jesus Christ . . . Thus, in both Philippians and John 1:1 it is not a matter of a dialectical relationship between two-in-one, but of a personal union of two entities.

When charged by opposers with ‘making himself a god,’ Jesus’ reply was: ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?” (Joh 10:31-37) Jesus there quoted from Psalm 82, in which human judges, whom God condemned for not executing justice, were called “gods.” (Ps 82:1, 2, 6, 7) Thus, Jesus showed the unreasonableness of charging him with blasphemy for stating that he was, not God, but God’s Son.

Regarding Acts 4:12 - Because Jehovah God so ordained to use his Son, “there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved.”—Ac 4:12; compare 1Jo 5:11-13.

Regarding the Kinsman Redeemer law - To avenge all those killed in the earth and especially the slain servants of Jehovah, the present-day Avenger of blood would have to be a kinsman of all mankind.

That role has been filled by Jesus Christ. He was born a perfect man. Jesus surrendered his sinless life in death as a ransom sacrifice, and after his resurrection to heaven, he presented its value to God for the sake of sinful Adam’s dying descendants.

Christ thus became mankind’s Redeemer, our closest relative—the rightful Avenger of blood. (Romans 5:12; 6:23; Hebrews 10:12) Jesus is identified as a brother to his anointed footstep followers. (Matthew 25:40, 45; Hebrews 2:11-17) As heavenly King he becomes the “Eternal Father” of those who will benefit from his sacrifice as his earthly subjects. These will live forever. (Isaiah 9:6, 7)

When Thomas called Jesus his Lord and God, why did he not rebuke him?

There is no objection to Thomas’ referring to Jesus as a god. Such would be in harmony with the fact that Jesus, in his prehuman existence, certainly was a god, that is, a powerful, divine person. And he certainly has been that since his death and resurrection to heavenly life.

Regarding the Alpha and The Omega - Jesus is called the first and last because he was the first and last to be resurrected directly from his father. (Gal 1:1)

Rev 2:8 These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive;

Jehovah is called the Alpha and The Omega because he the first and last of creation. He was never created and he will always be. Rev 22:13 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last."

If you read Rev 1:1 it shows that the entire book is about Jehovah the Alpha and Omega (via Angel) is relaying the revelation about Jesus Christ to his servant John. (Compare Rev 12:6)

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Regarding Jesus before time - Jesus was a created spirit being, just as angels were spirit beings created by God. Neither the angels nor Jesus had existed before their creation. Having been created by God, Jesus is in a secondary position in time, power, and knowledge Jesus, in his prehuman existence, was "the first-born of all creation." (Colossians 1:15, NJB) He was "the beginning of God's creation." (Revelation 3:14, RS, Catholic edition).

"Beginning" [Greek, ar·khe'] cannot rightly be interpreted to mean that Jesus was the 'beginner' of God's creation. In his Bible writings, John uses various forms of the Greek word ar·khe' more than 20 times, and these always have the common meaning of "beginning." Yes, Jesus was created by God as the beginning of God's invisible creations.

Regarding Isa 45; Deu 4:39; 1Ki 8:59; and Joh 1:3 - While the term "Wisdom" is used to personify the one whom God created, most scholars agree that it is actually a figure of speech for Jesus as a spirit creature prior to his human existence.

As "Wisdom" in his prehuman existence, Jesus goes on to say that he was "by his [God's] side, a master craftsman." (Proverbs 8:30, JB) In harmony with this role as master craftsman, Colossians 1:16 says of Jesus that "through him God created everything in heaven and on earth."—Today's English Version (TEV).

So it was by means of this master worker, his junior partner, as it were, that Almighty God created all other things. The Bible summarizes the matter this way: "For us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things . . . and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things." (Italics ours.)—1 Corinthians 8:6, RS, Catholic edition.

It no doubt was to this master craftsman that God said: "Let us make man in our image." (Genesis 1:26)

Some have claimed that the "us" and "our" in this expression indicate a Trinity. But if you were to say, 'Let us make something for ourselves,' no one would normally understand this to imply that several persons are combined as one inside of you. You simply mean that two or more individuals will work together on something. So, too, when God used "us" and "our," he was simply addressing another individual, his first spirit creation, the master craftsman, the prehuman Jesus.

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>the Angel Of Jehovah would be Jehovah also.

InCorrect. Angels or messagers are not to be worshipped where Jehovah is.

Col 2:18 - Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize.

Ex 34:14 - For thou shalt worship no other God; for Jehovah --Jealous is his name -- is a jealous God;

Answer 2

The Almighty God Jehovah was contrasting himself with the man-made idols in nations surrounding Israel. Jehovah asks: “To whom can you people liken God, and what likeness can you put alongside him?” Certainly not an image made by a metalworker or carved from a tree. (Isaiah 40:18-20; 41:7) Such “gods” could not ‘stretch out the heavens like a gauze,’ as Jehovah did. (Isaiah 40:21-26) Further, Jehovah is able to predict the future; surely the idols of the nations cannot ‘tell the things that are to come afterward, that we may know that they are gods.’ (Isaiah 41:23) This thought is repeated at Isaiah 43:9, where Jehovah states: “Let national groups be gathered together. Who is there among them that can tell this? Or can they cause us to hear even the first things? Let them furnish their witnesses.” Rightly, the Almighty says: “I am Jehovah. That is my name; and to no one else shall I give my own glory, neither my praise to graven images.” Isaiah 42:8.

John 1:1 in some Bibles reads:

1808: "and the word was a god." The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome's New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

1864: "and a god was the word." The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

1928: "and the Word was a divine being." La Bible du Centenaire, L'Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

1935: "and the Word was divine." The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1946: "and of a divine kind was the Word." Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.

1950: "and the Word was a god." New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.

1958: "and the Word was a God." The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

1975: "and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

1978: "and godlike kind was the Logos." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

So John1:1-4 goes on to talk about God's Son Jesus.

Answer 3

This "question" seems intended to argue that the word "god" is used in the bible ONLY in reference to Almighty Jehovah (God the Father).

But the Scriptures clearly teach that the term "god" can be applied to any powerful person, and the term was/is used that way in the Hebrew, Greek, and English languages.

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

(Psalm 82:2-8) How long will you [human judges] keep on judging with injustice And showing partiality to the wicked themselves? 3 Be judges for the lowly one and the fatherless boy... You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. 7 Surely you will die just as men do; And like any one of the princes you will fall!’” 8 Do rise up, O God, do judge the earth [better than any human judge]


Of course, the Scriptures also teach that there is a single Almighty God: Jehovah. The worship of Jehovah is the only form of pure worship. Honor and obeisance which is directed toward Jehovah's subject gods, such as Jesus, faithful angels, and even righteous human judges (see Psalm 82:2-8, above), is part of the pure worship of Jehovah.


On the other hand, opposing pure worship, is Satanic false worship. All forms of worship which do not comply with biblical true worship of Jehovah are really just different ways of worshipping the Devil. The Scriptures specifically call Satan a "god", and show that he controls much of human society.

(2 Corinthians 4:3-4) If, now, the good news we declare is in fact veiled, it is veiled among those who are perishing, 4 among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers


Satan even has the ability to make his disgusting false worship seem acceptable. Thus, rather than appearances, God's Word the Bible must be the only proper standard of pure worship.

(2 Corinthians 11:14-15) Satan himself keeps transforming himself into an angel of light. It is therefore nothing great if his ministers also keep transforming themselves into ministers of righteousness. But their end shall be according to their works.

(Matthew 7:21) Not everyone saying to [Jesus], ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter into the kingdom of the heavens, but the one doing the will of my Father who is in the heavens will.


So, the two gods who are commonly served today are:
Jehovah
Satan

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/20030215/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/jt/

Answer 4

three points only

Isa 43:11, It reads "I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior."

How were the Judges of Israel saviors?

Judges 3:9 And the sons of Israel began to call to Jehovah for aid. Then Jehovah raised a savior

Because Jehovah sent them to represent Him.

Who sent Jesus?

John 7:28 Therefore Jesus cried out as he was teaching in the temple and said: “YOU both know me and know where I am from. Also, I have not come of my own initiative, but he that sent me is real, and YOU do not know him. 29 I know him, because I am a representative from him, and that One sent me forth.”

If calling Jesus, a God at John 1:1 makes him equal to Jehovah,

Then Ps 82:6, makes the judges of Israel equal to Jehovah.
Then Moses at Ex 7:1 is equal to Jehovah
Then the angel of Jehovah is equal to Jehovah.

Judges 13:21 And Jehovah’s angel did not repeat appearing to Ma·no´ah and his wife anymore. Then it was that Ma·no´ah knew that he had been Jehovah’s angel. 22 Consequently Ma·no´ah said to his wife: “We shall positively die, because it is God that we have seen.”

because all these are call gods.



In Greek at Ex 3:14 God's name means "The Being" not 'I am'

That is how the Jews translated Ex 3:14 to Greek in LLX.

So in Greek Jesus would have had to say 'Before Abraham was, The Being.' to be quoting Ex 3:14 in Greek at John 8:58.

Answer 5

John 1:1 "the Word was with God"

Interesting, so God was with himself?

Or maybe you haven't read these scriptures

John 14:25 "the Father is greater than I am" Is God greater than himself?

John 8:28 "just as my Father taught me I speak these things". If Jesus were an all-knowing God could he be taught anything?



Psalm 83:18 "That men may know that you whose name is Jehovah, you ALONE are the Most High over all the earth"

When Jesus prayed who was he praying to? Himself?
Jesus died. Isn't God immortal?
Did Jesus resurect himself from the dead?
Doesn't the Bible say that Jesus is God's Son? Is God his own son?

God did not say "I AM". That is an inaccurate translation. Moses, in that passage of scripture, is not asking God to reafirm His own existance. He was asking God what to tell his brothers to help them put their trust in God. Thus, several translations, instead of reading "I Am That I Am", read "I Shall Prove To Be". Furthermore, Jesus did not say "I Am". The pharisees were questioning Jesus about his age, not about his identity. Hence, several translations instead of reading "before Abraham was, I Am", read before Abraham was, I have been". Then the atempt was made to stone Jesus because Jesus claimed to come from heaven.

Concerning John 10:30, Jesus was not claiming to be the Father. He said that he and his father were "one". That doesn't mean they are the same person, it means that they are in unity. Read the context and see how Jesus and God work together. Likewise, Jesus said that his disciples would be one the same way that he and his Father are one (John 17:11). Obvously, this is talking about unity, and so is the scripture in John 10:30. Jesus did not say that he was God, it was the Jews who came to that conclusion. That doesn't mean that their conclusion was correct. The Jews often made dishonering claims about Jesus that were not true. (Matthew 11:19)

Jesus is referred to as a god in the Bible. The Bible also refers to human judges as 'gods' because they were God's representatives. (Psalm 82:6) Moses acted as "God" to pharoah of Egypt (Exodus 4:16). That doesn't mean that we worship those human judges or Moses. It simply means that they were representatives of God. Likewise, Jesus in Revelation 19:13 is referred to, not as God the Word, but as the Word of God, that is, God's spokesman. The same idea is in John 1:1-18. The fact that human judges, Moses, or Jesus are referred to as Gods does not contradict the fact that John 17:3 says that there is only one true God. Only Jehovah should be worshipped. Jesus himself repeated the law given at Deuteronomy 5:9 "It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service." (Matthew 4:10)

Concerning Isaiah 43:11 where Jehovah says that besides him there is no savior, haven't you ever read John 3:16? Whose idea was it for Jesus to come to earth? Was it Jesus' idea? No, for the scripture says that God gave Jesus. John 17:3 likewise says that God SENT Jesus. Therefore, salvation originates with Jehovah. He can rightfully say that besides him, there is no savior. Psalm 3:8 says "Salvation belongs to Jehovah". True, Jesus is referred to as a savior in the Bible. This does not contradict Isaiah 43:11. Jehovah is still the ultimate Source of salvation. Also, when Isaiah 43:11 was written, Jesus had not yet come to earth. It was Jehovah who saved the Israelites from Egyptian bondage and from the several attacks from the Philistines and Canaanites.

I will not answer you any longer. Time will tell who is correct and who is being mislead by Satan the Devil.

Answer 6

The that means of 'the First and the Last' is defined within the subsequent word: 'who grew to become lifeless and got here to lifestyles once more.' The context suggests that Jesus is the First and the Last in that he was once the primary being to die and to be introduced again to lifestyles immortal lifestyles through Jehovah. Since Jesus didn't exist whilst he was once lifeless, it was once Jehovah by myself who resurrected him. All different long term resurrections will contain Jesus himself. Jesus' resurrection was once the primary resurrection to immortality. All earlier resurrections, reminiscent of those Jesus played, weren't everlasting - all people who was once resurrected died once more. It is an exegetical mistakes to expect that for the reason that each Jesus and Jehovah are known as 'the First and the Last,' that they have got to be the equal man or woman. Sharing a identify does no longer imply they are the equal man or woman, and even that the identify has the equal that means. Jehovah is known as a 'king' within the bible, and so is Jesus. Yet, there are lots of different kings, kings of multiple kingdom. It does not imply they are the entire equal man or woman. Same is going for the identify 'the First and the Last.' @ troll to troll As I mentioned, he was once the final to be straight resurrected through God himself. All different resurrections to immortal lifestyles are via Jesus.

Answer 7

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AS a former JW, this is a scripture used to show where the Name was taken from (Jehovah’s Witnesses) and applied to the organization in the 1930’s. But, you will notice that at the beginning of chapter 43:1 it is referring to Jacob and Israel.

In the context, it indicates in no uncertain terms that they are chosen by God whereas your typical JW is not taught that they are chosen by God but only their governing body is. According to their teaching, they are only recognized because of their association with their governing body. In the past the GB has refered to them as the stick gathers of Israel or the foreigners who Israel allowed to work for them.

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Answer 8

"The word LORD when it is in caps is the name Jehovah. They replace it in the Bible. So the verse would be: I, I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior. "

The NWT correctly reproduces the Holy name of God in it's text that most other translations have removed. Most still keep Psalm 83:18, take a look.

The Catholic encyclopaedia states:

Jehovah - Proper name of God in the Old Testament
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08329a.htm

Jesus worshipped Jehovah after all.

Answer 9

I think they worship Jehovah, so those verses don't apply to them.

Answer 10

It means that Jesus was God in the flesh...Ih I'm sorry I thought you were addressing ex-Jehovah's Witnesses.