English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

A prophet who did not speak directly to God must have had God's written word to guide him. Muhammad clearly did not agree with Jesus as the Son of God therfore could not have believed the Gospel that was available to him.
Muhamamd did however believe that Jesus was the Messiah.
So surely Muhammad must have had a written word of God that said Jesus was not the Son of God and that Jesus was Messiah. If Muhammad did not have a written word such as this then Muhamamd must have disagreed with the word of God that was available to him. Moses said a prophet of God must agree with the word of God and the prophets of God.
This makes perfect sense it would be hard to be a prophet of God and not agree with God. Now If Muhammad did not agree wiht the word of God seems to reason for whatever reason he may have had it would still be impossible to be a prophet of God. now if there is a book available that states Christ is Messiah who did not atone for sin with the prophet of both Old and New

2007-06-26 00:08:20 · 8 answers · asked by djmantx 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Testaments agreeing on this...then maybe i can see how Muhammad knew this and was still in agreement with God's word...can any Muslism reveal this word of God that was available ot Muhamamd before he spoke to Gabriel or am I to believe that a prophet of God can disagreee with the word of God nad have no other way to hear from God and remain a perfect prophet of God...if there is a book that agrees wiht Muhammad before the Qu'ran would someone please direct me to such a book that guided this prophet?

2007-06-26 00:12:30 · update #1

Thanks skahh I must admit I have no earthly idea what that means.

2007-06-26 00:18:51 · update #2

By any means correctme if I'm wrong but Moses spoke directly to God even the Quran agrees wiht this...If a man can not speak directly to God then would he not be dependent on God's written word? Moses said he would a prophet of God must be in agreement wiht the prophets of God and the word of God.

2007-06-26 00:37:45 · update #3

LOTR am I to take from this that before speaking with Gabriel the prophet was mislead to believe in the deity of Christ and that even though Muhammad believed in a false God Allah still made him his prophet?
and quite possibly held him blameless for worhipping other Gods? Or did Muhamamd not believe in the available word of God which relaly makes it hard to believe a prophet of God does not believe in the available word of God.
why would Moses say a prophet must believe in the word of God and agree with the prophets of God? Seems Moses who did speak directly with God would know and all of the prophets before Muhammad clearly agreed with the word of God surely there was a word of God available to any prophet of God.
If not why wouldnt Muhamamd believe in the words of the prophets that were available to him?

2007-06-26 00:56:10 · update #4

Clarity seems you believe that we have no need of the word of God as man can logicly know God. Do Atheist use their logic to say there is no God? Can a man follow God's law by his own logic if so why did God send us the law? why not expect man to be logical and know right from wrong? It seems that throughout the history of man God either gave him his word verbaly or spoke with him through scripture never was there a time when man was forced to depend on his own logic to know God's truth but somehow Muhamamd lived in a time where there was no truth available and had to logicly know what God wanted for him. Why did God speak to Adam and Abraham and Jacob and even Moses before there was scripture? Why would God make a man dependant on his own logic and how does that translate into being a prophet of God who does not know God only his own logic.

2007-06-26 01:27:09 · update #5

Adamjer the Word of God was available to Muhammad and he actually said he agreed with it as he has Allah saying that the word fo God can not be changed it is the same word of God available to you today and there are copies of the Bible available that predate the Quran and all do teach of the atonement and resurrection of Christ.

2007-06-26 01:38:11 · update #6

ok Muslims the word of God throughout the world was corrupt when Muhhamad was growing old and he still through logic believed not the written word of God but his own logic as he could not talk to God and had no available word from God but he still refused to believe in the word of God that was available to him..However he maintained his belief that Jesus was not God even though the word of God said he was the Messiah and he would atone for sin. Muhammad chose to believe his own logic rather than the word of God and somehow this translates to him becoming a prophet of God because he believed in himself rather than the word of God that was avaialble to him...knowing that Moses said a prophet must be in aqgreement with the word of God and the prophets of God he decided these words of the prophets were wrong and somehow he knew the real words of the prophets without speaking to God or having a word from God confiming this to himself and then Gabriel confirmend to him that that was all he

2007-06-26 01:48:12 · update #7

Really needed was faith in his own logic he really didnt need Allah at all he was right the whole time and a prophet need not believe in the word of God but can use his own logic...So why dear friends did Allah waste his time giving Muhamamd the Qu'ran when man could do so well for himself following his own logic? It seems Muhamamd already knew what Gabriel came to tell him wihtout Gabriel telling him anything...apparently Muhamamd knew from logic what Gabriel was going to tell him. even if it was not ina greement wiht the written words of the prophets...or the word of God that was available..Muhamamd somehow disagreed with the written word of God and became a prophet of God....Then cant this happen today couldnt we choose through logic to say the Quran is not the last word of God that it is a corruption of Gods word and decide the truth for ourselves by our own logic?

2007-06-26 01:54:47 · update #8

It seems to me that Moses made much more sense..a prophet of God had to hear form God not his own logic. A prophet of God would be expected by God to trust God and his word writen and otherwise.. some how I cant even invison the God of Abrham allowing his word and the words of the prophets to become lies and having his prophets depend on their own logic to know God's truth. Moses depended on God for the truth and it seems all of the prophets did and somehow Muhammad had to follow his own logic he had no words of the prophets to depend on he had no word from God until Gabriel and some how this man overcame the word of God thatw as available and believed acording to his logic until God sent an angel who alos denied the available word of God and the word of the prophets, I myself might have ot question the truthfulness of an angel that disagrees with the word of God...

2007-06-26 02:09:01 · update #9

halo why is the answer of every Muslim when questioned about their Qu'ran or their prophet to attck the validity of the true word of God? My questions are not an attack but to demonstrate why Muhammad can not be a prophet of the God that was before Muhammad. If Allah was the God of Abraham as he says he is then he would also agree as this is his word that Moses gave us. The Bible is not full of errors the Quran is deifnitely full of errors but it is not the only reason it can not be the word of the God that was before Muhammad.

2007-06-26 02:47:54 · update #10

By any means I never said a prophet of God had ot speak directly to god but I did say Moses spoke directly to God.So did many people of his time not simply prophets moses had no book he did not need a book as God did comunicate directly with his people at this time. of course you know this Abrham ahd no book he also spoke directly to God...after Moses passed down the word of God in scripture many people no longer comunicated wiht God directly but they had the word of God and the words of the prophets of God to lead them...Muhammad did not agree with the word of God nor the prophets of God. he could not talk directly to God therfore need an uncorrupt scripture to lead him or he was left to follow his own logic as one Muslim has answered...If a prophet of God is left simply wiht his own logic and no word ofrm God how can he be a prophet of God...How did God reveal his truth to Muhammad? Well I know the Quran says through Gabriel it is the rason ofr my question did he believe in the

2007-06-26 02:56:54 · update #11

word of God that existed before he spoke to Gabriel..I can assure Moses did he spoke with God, I can assure all of the prophets of God had a reliable word of God to depend on. Teh quran called Jesus the word of God surely he agreed with the word of God that was before him... jesus taugth from the avialble word of God even Isaiah which he said he would fufill.

2007-06-26 03:00:53 · update #12

Jerimiah 8:8 you did corrupt
8 How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain
thsi can not be interpreted to say that the word of God is corrupt but that the law was penned in vain.because men had rejected following the law...Lets not try to corrupt God's word oursleves

2007-06-26 03:07:43 · update #13

interpretations like the one you just gave is the reason you say the word is corrupt.

2007-06-26 03:09:17 · update #14

8 answers

Early versions of the Koran contain verses (which are disowned and expunged by modern Muslims) that shed some light on this issue. These verses are called the "Satanic Verses" in some circles and they apparently tell of Muhammed being tricked by Satan and telling the people of Mecca to worship pagan goddesses. If true this could in theory call in to question the idea of Muhammed's prophetic infallibility.

2007-06-26 00:17:50 · answer #1 · answered by Steam_Monkey 2 · 0 1

The Prophet (pbuh) believed in God, but it is not neccessary, that he had to have book to guide him. We know that the Prophet (pbuh) never worshipped the idols of Makkah this is why he would travel to Makkahn mountains to think.

God could easliy guide him, without revealing anything. I mean was Moses worshiping Aman Ra or any other Egyptian god? Or what book was he following before God spoke to him?

EDIT:
But you do not disagree that everything is controlled by God, God guides who He wills and how He wills and as far as I know Moses only spoke to God after he knew of his Prophethood, not whislt he was growing up.

EDIT:
You haven't answered my question what book did Moses follow? The Bible was corrupt at that time, as we know today it is, why would Muhammad (pbuh) follow it? Does it not make more sense that God guided both of them because God can do so.

The Quran is needed to counter false accusations such has God begetting as son, and all the incest etc placed in the Bible, by scribes:

'How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely? (Jeremiah 8:8)

2007-06-26 00:31:56 · answer #2 · answered by By Any Means Necessary 5 · 1 1

The whole problem is in the correctness of the Bible. Dear many scholars not only Muslims but also Christians admit that the Bible was changed many times and has suffered in the hands of the human. So how can you be sure what you are referring is true world of God.

in recent days there has been a research made by Christians. in that research they found more than 50,000.00 errors in the Bible.

Then how can any one use the Bible as a correct world of God?

2007-06-26 01:12:13 · answer #3 · answered by adamjer 2 · 1 1

All words are God's words if you believe that IS is and that God is the full culmination of IS. Man seeks to find truth to make life more meaningful and explainable. Man also finds himself preoccupied with what has been put before him to examine and discern if he has the time between his work. Muhammed was only doing that same thing, and he was allowed to come to whatever conclusions that we as God allowed him to at that time.

2007-06-26 00:16:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Mohammed was born into the tribe. At first, he followed the rules for meditation of his tribe. As a boy he had plenty of opportunity to observe pilgrims and teachers-Jews and Christians among them.

However, Mohammed developed a distaste for the worship of idols.

After the appearance by the Archangel Gabriel to Mohammed, he was convinced that this was the beggining of his prophethood.

2007-06-26 00:39:04 · answer #5 · answered by LOTR Fan 5 · 2 1

Muhammad (pbuh) was raised in Arab which was vastly polytheistic in those days. It would be interesting to know that Arabs, though pagans, were aware of the existence of the One God and looked at all the idols as means of approaching that One God. So the concept of monotheism was there but in a perverted form. There were several idols inside the Ka'aba itself. Interestingly, those idols also included those of Abraham (pbuh ) and Mary (pbuh). The Arab area was also surrounded by lots of Jewish tribes. Makkah in those days was the hub of commercial activity. For Arab tribes the way of cementing relations with any tribe was to give a place to their idol in Ka'aba. They, in fact, made good commercial activity out of annual gathering at the Ka'aba.

In this scenario, there were a group or class of people who which did not believe in this concept of religion. They were called Haneefs. They, based on their reason and logic, had reached the concept of monotheism but did not know how to worship God and what was required of them. But for sure, they turned away from the polytheistic religion of Arabs. Some of them looked up to Christians for guidance. Some were satisfied and yet some could discern polytheism within the outward monotheistic facade of the christianity (or what it had been reduced to by the majority of christians, to be more precise).

Muhammad (pbuh) belonged to the haneefs. In his middle age (before the start of revelation) he was really put off by the lifestyle around him and the practices so he would go to mount hira and meditate there on the existence of God, sometimes over night. It was during one of these night stays that the angel Gabriel came with the divine revelation, "Read in the name of thy Lord who creates".

As for your perverted logic (or ramblings), it does not take a Prophet to understand how illogical is the premise that Christ (pbuh) is the son of God. Even a person of average IQ and common sense can figure it out by making use of his cranial cavity. Also, even in those days there were "true"Christians who did not believe that Christ (pbuh) was son of God but that he was a prophet of God. So there was knowledge of actual "word of God" even at that time too.

By the way, I suggest that to increase your general knowledge and to broaden your mind (so that you may come up with some logical arguments at least) you go through Surah Maryam. This is a chapter of Quran dedicted to Mary (pbuh) and Christ (pbuh). Its one of my favorite chapters in Quran and is very moving. It tells the whole story of Mary and Christ. You can find an English translation at www.asanquran.com. If you do not understand anything then explanations are also available with reference to the conrext.

2007-06-26 00:54:39 · answer #6 · answered by Catalyst 3 · 1 1

Still don't give up, do you?

THE BIBLE IS FULL OF ERRORS, WHY DO YOU TRUST IT?
http://www.probe.org/content/view/211/47/

2007-06-26 02:41:12 · answer #7 · answered by halo 3 · 1 0

Interesting.

We could not answer this now, but once we got the answer, we will forward it to you via your email.

Cheers

-Muslims-

2007-06-26 00:25:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers