What name did Jesus call God? Jesus spoke Aramaic. In aramaic language, Allah is the standard word for God?

Answer 1

My understanding is that Hebrew has 72 distinct names for the creator. I don't see where those 72 names would have evolved, particularly, after the time of Christ so I would imagine that even if he were speaking Aramaic he would have had about that same number of names to choose from.

Answer 2

GOD Elohim Jehovah Yahweh Deus Allah Haile Selassie Gud Shangdi Shen Tian Zhu Tian Brahman Trimurti Anami Purush Aum Akal Purakh Malik Uppar Valah Rabh Bhagavan Govinda Aten Ahura Mazda Xwedê Abraxas Cao Dai Aigonz

Answer 3

Hello, Sarah:

In the Old Testament, we have many terms for God, but Jesus set the record straight. He said: Before Abraham: I AM. In other words He said He is God--and that act almost got Him stoned.

You see, Sarah, Jesus was the great Elohim that walked in the Garden of Eden with Adam and Eve. He was the God at the burning bush, He was the soldier that fought battles for Joshua, the Lord that talked to Abram. Jesus was our creator, and He exhibited all the creative powers, like healing disease, restoring limbs, raising the dead, and making bread and fish to feed the multitudes. Yes, Jesus was our Creator.

But He was not alone, and He introduced a new personality, THE FATHER. And the Father gave all things to Him, and put all things into His subjection.

Why, because in Heaven Jesus asked to be the replacement for the Fallen Adam. And when Earth is recreated, Jesus will be our God, and we will be His people. Yes, this unworthy prodical planet will become the new center of God's universe.

More on this, Sarah, when you break the hidden Bible code that proves Jesus is more than a prophet, but He died for humanity as the "substitute" for sinners guilt.

See: http://abiblecode.tripod.com

Blessings, Balaam

Answer 4

Yes, Allah is the generic Aramaic word for God.

It comes from the Hebrew word Aliyah which means to go up. So Allah would mean "one who is above".

The fact that this same word is used in Arabic for the same thing shows the how close Arabic, Aramaic, and Hebrew are.

They are all located in the man subset of the Semitic language family.

I wish some people would have some knowledge before they speak.

Answer 5

[edit] Eloi Eloi lama sabachthani
Matthew 27:46

Around the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, saying "Eli Eli lama sabachthani?" which is, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"
Mark 15:34

And at the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, "Eloi Eloi lama sabachthani?" which is translated, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"
Of the seven sayings of Jesus from the cross, this one stands out. It is the only saying recorded in Matthew and Mark, and is the only one that appears in two, parallel accounts. Intriguingly, this saying is given in Aramaic with a translation (originally in Greek) after it. This phrase also appears on the opening line of Psalm 21 (Psalm 22 in the Masoretic Text). In the verses immediately following this saying, in both Gospels, some who hear Jesus' cry imagine that he is calling for help from Elijah (Eliyyâ). The slight differences between the two gospel accounts are most probably due to dialect. Matthew's version seems to have been more influenced by Hebrew, whereas Mark's is perhaps more colloquial.

The Aramaic phrase could be either:

אלי אלי למא שבקתני [ēlî ēlî lamâ švaqtanî]; or
אלהי אלהי למא שבקתני [ēlâhî ēlâhî lamâ švaqtanî]
The Aramaic word švaqtanî is based on the verb švaq, 'to allow, to permit, to forgive, and to forsake', with the perfect tense ending -t (2nd person singular: 'you'), and the object suffix -anî (1st person singular: 'me').

Answer 6

Steve C: He already HAD the keys to the universe! See St. Paul quoting the Psalmist in various places, including I *think* Ephesians 15:22.

Actually, Jesus called His Father "Abba" in SEVERAL places. Which for whatever reason (the exegetes are not unanimous) so struck the Evangelists, writing in Greek, that they kept it. And since it obviously wasn't Greek, the translators into Latin, English, and presumably many other languages left it as in the original.

Some of the exegetes say it amounts to Dad or Daddy. Steve's "Pops," being outdated slang, might be the perfect equivalent for the Authorized Version method. (The language that King James' men used was intentionally old-fashioned WHEN they used it in the 17th century.)

P.S. to "Hey, Ray": When did Jesus speak Greek? His biographers and/or their translators did, but that doesn't prove anything about Him!

P.P.S. In Matthew 27:46, Jesus begins the 22nd Psalm. Depending on the transliteration, He calls His Father "Eli" or "Eloi," God.

Answer 7

Jesus(A.S.) would call the Lord either Eloh, which is an Aramaic word that signifies 'something worthy to be worshiped' or Abba, which is 'Father' in Hebrew and should not be taken in a literal sense. Jews used the term 'Father' as an endearment and testament to the Lord's creative qualities.

And to whomever said that 'Jehovah' means 'the Father' in Hebrew should seek more knowledge. Jehovah, or YeHoWaH is a term called 'Tetragrammaton' in Greek. Tetragrammaton means 'four letters'. Aramaic, Classical Arabic, and Hebrew were phonetic(they didn't signify vowels). So 'Jehovah' was actually 'YHWH' since there is no J or V in the Classical Hebrew language.

Oh, and 'Jehovah' means 'I Am Who I am' and is the term in which MOSES(A.S.) referred to the Lord, not JESUS(A.S.)

Also, Jesus(A.S.) NEVER spoke Greek... EVER...

Answer 8

Jesus called God Father so whatever word it is in Aramaic for Father would be what Jesus called God.

Answer 9

Allah is the word for God in Arabic, not Aramaic. Allah would not be a word used by Jesus.

Answer 10

Yes, it is highly believed that Yeshua did speak Aramaic. In the Bible the Hebrew name is used: Eloah or Eloi. But Yeshua very well could have used Allah.