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the phrase "para bellum" doesn't have "for" and yet it means "prepate for war".

2007-06-24 15:10:53 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

7 answers

latin does not have any words like for, in over at. it does not even have any words for i you we etc.

latin simply uses verbs. and noun forms to make something possessive. for example instead of saying I AM in latin, you would just say AM. by the way the word is spelled, you immediately know its about I and not HE or you would have said WAS.

2007-06-24 21:09:08 · answer #1 · answered by mrzwink 7 · 0 2

In Latin, as in French, and Spanish and other languages, prepositions are not used with certain verbs because they are included in the verb. Don't forget that the languages were not developed starting from English, so do not assume that they follow the same patterns. That's why you can't translate literally, or expect a good translation using Babelfish, for example. In Latin, the "for"in included in the verb "para". In other cases, a preposition is used in French where there is none in English. In English, you phone someone. In French you use the preposition a (with an accent) with that verb.
I phone Paul. Je telephone a Paul. (sorry about the missing accents)

2007-06-24 20:28:07 · answer #2 · answered by sharmach 2 · 1 0

Latin has many words for 'for', depending on context: ob, nam, pro, in, enim.

'Para bellum' is really a complete sentence. 'Para' is the command form of the verb 'parare', which means 'prepare for' and 'bellum' is the accusative case for 'war'. Para bellum means 'Prepare for war'.

2007-06-24 15:24:08 · answer #3 · answered by dollhaus 7 · 1 1

Latin has various words for "for" and they have been outlined by others here but it is not always necessary (or allowed) to use them.
I have to contradict Mr. Zwink who said that Latin does not even have a word for "I" or "we" etc. - it has.
The Latin word for "I" is ego - and it is widely used even today - egoistic e.g. comes from that word.
So these words exist but you don't always have to use them.

2007-06-24 21:34:37 · answer #4 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0 0

for is not direct and is implied in the variation of the surrounding words in this instance.

2007-06-24 15:15:57 · answer #5 · answered by Rockster 1 · 0 0

You can drop the for because of the form of the noun.

2007-06-24 15:43:08 · answer #6 · answered by LabGrrl 7 · 0 2

POR

2007-06-24 15:14:04 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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