"As the Bible, 'the message is...so inextricably human and divine in one, that no single sentence can be quoted as having the authority of an authentic utterance of the All-Holy God."
-Professor John Baillie quoting Archbishop Temple
2007-06-23 11:42:13 · 11 answers · asked by Patrick the Carpathian, CaFO 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Of course; the Bible was written by men. There is no divine inspiration however. Other works are as moving, or more.
2007-06-23 12:07:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
In my personal opinion that person is trying to catch "readers eye" by using big words like inextricably and utterance, just to impress the ones with lower IQ then him. More then that, as long as for a lot of people I know, Bible does not look at all intricate or entangled, I may conclude that this smart guy is not that smart at all.
Heaving this in mind, why should I ever humble my ears to such absurdities?
I hope this helps and satisfy some knowledge hunger.
2007-06-23 18:58:04 · answer #2 · answered by Even Haazer 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I agree with it. There is no true possibility of proving that the Bible is factual, let alone that there is a God. There is also no way to verify that God truly said all of the things the Bible states he said. The fact is, there isn't a probable way to establish that type of knowledge first hand. On that note, how can we utter "but God says so in the Bible," when no one has the authority, or the criteria needed to state it factual?
2007-06-23 18:54:45 · answer #3 · answered by Kaiti P 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think he makes a great point, and highlights one of the problems with religion. A quote taken out of context can completely change the message that was meant to be conveyed.
2007-06-23 18:49:16 · answer #4 · answered by Isabelle 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I agree 100%. The bible as a whole is canonical, not this or that individual sentence (even if read in context).
2007-06-23 18:47:17 · answer #5 · answered by obro 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Bible is without error, because God says so - in the Bible.” - Lunarsight
circular logic - one of the most flawed form of logic
“What can be asserted without evidence can also be dismissed without evidence.” – Christopher Hitchens
2007-06-23 18:45:24 · answer #6 · answered by 8theist 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I am not catholic, but Jewish. But, I think he might have mean that the text must be understood **collectively**, rather than taking pieces of it. "no **single** sentence can be quoted as having the authority..." Must be understood as a whole.
2007-06-23 18:46:52 · answer #7 · answered by tharedhead ((debajo del ombú)) 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I agree...I think...let me reflect on what I just read lol.
Edit: Yes now I understand and I agree whole-heartedly.
2007-06-23 18:45:24 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
mixed emotions............I would have to read this a few times to grasp his meaning
2007-06-23 18:45:39 · answer #9 · answered by ? 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
i think it means, "who r u 2 judge?".................................you know catholic priests and their scandels!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2007-06-23 23:39:15 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋