Given that most faiths espouse deities that espouse no other deities other than those that they uniquely claim--in other words, that the beliefs of most faiths are exclusive to the beliefs of most other faiths--what substantiates one faith over another? A Muslim God where there is only one God, and a Greek god where there are no other gods but the traditional Greek, are faiths that cannot be SIMULTANEOUSLY true in the same universe (and yes, there is only one UNIverse). What's the deal? I await your knee-jerk reactions, but more happily await reasoned discussion.
2007-06-21
12:23:32
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