2007-06-21 04:46:33 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Uh, no. I don't know of a mapping that would make the sciences isomorphic in any sense. Would you care to explain what you are talking about?
2007-06-21 04:57:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ha! Nice question. Philosophically one could argue yes, but mathematically no, as the theoretical body of physics is not a closed set, i.e. there is no one-to-one mapping of mathematics to the physical world. Also check out Kurt Godel's incompleteness theorem.
2007-06-21 12:16:34 · answer #2 · answered by supastremph 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, but it is very mathematical.
If it decends into pure mathematics it has lost sight of the reality it is trying to describe. A good example of this is string theory.
Otherwise, always remember that in physics you can cheat at maths, because you already know what the answer looks like. As Einstein said "God does not care about our mathematical difficulties. He integrates empirically."
2007-06-21 11:55:42 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋