Note: Read thoroughly. Before responding quickly, please, step away from your computer, walk around for a few minutes and let it bounce around inside your head. Give me a well thought out answer.
1) Is God timeless and did he exist before everything and will exist after everything? If you answered YES, then proceed to Question 2.
2) Why, in Genesis I:5 is God referred to as HE? Gender sets woman apart from man. Why does God have a gender if there wasn't any other gender to differentiate from because it did not yet exist?
(PS Genesis is the word of God. Don't give me the "mistranslation" argument.)
2007-06-20 12:50:49 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus calls him father (he).
2007-06-20 13:22:26 · update #1
it is the word of God but wasnt written in first person unless directly quoted as so, however verse 26 is even more interesting
2007-06-20 13:05:09 · answer #1 · answered by thephoneguy1234 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As much as I hate to say it...
Woman are considered to be weak.
Thus, If you were in, lets say, court..
If you were to have a female judge.
She would EASILY give in too the crying and the sad story.
I'm not speaking for all woman, Judge Trudy was a pretty strong woman herself =P
But the point is, woman back then were considrerd not much but a house maid.
So, An image of a female God back then, would sound unrealistic. Because they were all just a bunch of sexist.
And the reason why I dont give out Bible verses. Is because I dont belive what they say, thus going back to Genesis 1:5.
If you look hard enough. There is a verse in the Qu'ran that explains that in depth.
I'm going to go look for it and i'll be back as SOON as I can find it.
You should really think about looking at other Holy Books. Because they are written by God. Just some of them got changed over time.
2007-06-20 20:08:37 · answer #2 · answered by anchorage 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You are right to say God is timeless. He did exist before all creation and if you keep reading you will see that God made Adam first and then made Eve from Adam. God put the first woman on earth at that time and in that way so man and woman would become one, and man would love woman as he loves himself who was made in the image of GOD.
2007-06-20 20:08:11 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well I don't truly believe that God is either male or female, to me, God's either both, or neither, but God is thought of as a male because way back when (and still a little bit today) men where thought of as the dominant gender. But that's not exactly the answer to your question, it's more of an opinion of
mine.
2007-06-20 19:59:54 · answer #4 · answered by RainKid 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Answer #1 He is timeless, being a spirit time has no effect on him or any-other spirit being.
As to #2 Seeds have a beginning in the male of the species. Woman modifies it and nurtures it.
Jesus refered to Jehovah as his father and God........can't argue with that.
2007-06-20 20:01:36 · answer #5 · answered by Wisdom 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
alright, ill take a punch at this one.... i believe god is timeless...is he the maker aka, the creator? why not? since theres isnt any proof that he did it, nor is there any proof to his idenity, we really cant say much.. (for those thinking he dont exist...guess what, the fact that people are influanced by him despite his existance....now thats what i call a supreme being...)
2. the part about HE... well the people writing the bible( or whatever holy book your talking about) are most likely from a male domonant society plus they didnt want to call good "IT" ...well this is what i think anyways...feel free to compare your beliefs
2007-06-20 20:00:22 · answer #6 · answered by jdak34 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The "word of God" HAS been translated by humans, that is fact. So we don't really know what the word of god is. We know what mans interpretations of the men who interpreted gods words are.
Nothing human is the alpha and the omega. Interpretation is all that we have been given, hence this is all we "know."
2007-06-20 19:57:28 · answer #7 · answered by lawyerslastbreath 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Bible wasn't written before or during the creation it was after. So yeah, there was a gender differentiation.
2007-06-20 19:57:06 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
HE is referred to as HE because at the time people thought man was supperiour to whoman.
2007-06-20 19:56:07 · answer #9 · answered by M H 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because it was "he's" who were writing at that time. They had to have some identification to call "the ultimate energy". There is no beginning and end - just here in our itsy, bitsy realm and in our "god minds".
2007-06-20 19:58:03 · answer #10 · answered by neptune 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋