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someone told me that king james had the bible translated, so that he could get a divorce???

2007-06-20 03:24:34 · 14 answers · asked by delana 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

a roman catholic told me this, and was bashing the bible saying it was only written to suite his needs at this time

2007-06-20 03:30:21 · update #1

ahhh im not saying that he needed one, a catholic that was telling ,me i was wrong for even reading it , so i had to ask

2007-06-20 03:35:18 · update #2

14 answers

Here is some basic information on the KJV of 1611

1. The KJV was born out of a need to still the voices of critics who had opposed the Bishops’ Bible and out of a need to bring uniformity into a confused situation. The desire was to make one translation out of many good ones, to which men could not justly take exceptions.” (1604)

2. King James himself never contributed any money to its production nor gave us any record of his official authorization of the finished product. In no sense does the word “authorized” refer to Divine authorization.

3. There were perhaps twenty-five New Testament manuscripts known in 1611; 1,500 in 1885; and now 5,480 Greek manuscripts and fragments.

4. The translators were made up of 54 people, of whom we know only 47 names. The preface makes is clear that the translators of 1611 did not claim they were inspired or made a perfect translation.

5. The Council of Trent in 1545 declared the Latin Vulgate to be the official Bible of the Roman Catholic Church. The KJV was heavily influenced by Latin.

6. The translators of the KJV anticipated much opposition to their efforts from Catholics and from non-conformists.

2007-06-20 03:43:02 · answer #1 · answered by TG 4 · 1 0

King James didn't need a divorce ,he was queer as a three dollar bill.
Henry the 8th pulled out of Catholicism and started the Anglican Church ,so he could get a divorce.
James' scholars translated the Bible from Latin to English.The Catholics forbade this but they did it anyway.Others had done it but were killed.The Catholics didn't want the common man to read the Bible.They would loose control that way.

2007-06-20 03:30:59 · answer #2 · answered by AngelsFan 6 · 1 0

Hello there;

Read the Question on this forum "Why People Stay in Bad Marriages" I do use KJV ONLY!

No one should use the Bible to 'Work' for themselves - this is Wrong - Read Revelation 22: ...........'If any man shall add the plagues of this book shall be added' If any man shall take away ---- his part out of the Holy City shall be taken away'

Not something I would want to fool around with! I was in a Very Bad Marriage - I wrote in that Question - Feel free to read it! The Lord does allow divorce with Adultery - Jesus Himself said it - but, God does NOT like Divorce - it is a Holy Bond! If a marriage CAN be Saved - then EVERY effort should be made to Save it!

I will pray for the Lord to guide you as He did me.

Please be at Peace - Accept God's Grace!

Take Care and God Bless!

2007-06-20 07:56:44 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I grew up reading the King James version and that i've got the recent King James version (alongside with 20 different variations) in my library. My known assertion on lots of the recent Bible variations that attempt to revise the King James version -- the recent King James version, the recent Revised version, the recent American customary version, the Revised English Bible, and so on. -- is that their chief function is removing God's very own call from his very own e book. i haven't particularly got here across a lot of value interior the diversities stated above, aside from that: the removal of God's call. and then I would desire to ask, If God placed it there, via what authority does guy get rid of it? luckily, no longer all Bibles are becoming to be rid of the call. yet you will desire to bypass previous the widespread ones, or a minimum of those pushed via non secular bookstores, to stumble on an incredible Bible.

2016-09-28 04:07:06 · answer #4 · answered by cronican 4 · 0 0

King James was raised by his aunt Queen Elizabeth the first who more or less stole him from his Mother Queen Mary of Scotland. Queen Mary was a devout Catholic but, Queen Elizabeth made sure James was a Protestant and he acted the part with a vengeance

2007-06-20 03:44:49 · answer #5 · answered by Midge 7 · 0 0

No, King James had the bible translated to his precise instructions: anything that disagreed with the doctrine of the Church of England was to be left out.
The book of "James" was actually named after him.
Tons of errors and mistranslations, monks notes were thrown in as scripture.. the whole thing is a mess.

2007-06-20 03:30:21 · answer #6 · answered by Kallan 7 · 2 1

Getting your Kings mixed up. Henry the XIII broke from the church to get a divorce.
King James translated the Bible to English. It's a VERY biased translation.

2007-06-20 03:27:29 · answer #7 · answered by ~Heathen Princess~ 7 · 4 1

You are getting your kings of England mixed up.

Henry VIII created the Church of England separate from the Catholic church because the pope would not give him an annulment and then excommunicated him for getting his local bishops to annul his first marriage and ratify his second.

James I wanted a standard English version of the accepted Greek/Latin scriptures.

2007-06-20 03:34:15 · answer #8 · answered by Simon T 7 · 0 0

Wow. What a mix up. That's like saying "I heard that Abraham Lincoln chopped down a cherry tree".

No. You're getting King Henry VIII and King James I mixed up.

2007-06-20 03:29:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

I haven't heard that one yet. I've also heard that people think that he was a homosexual.

I think it is funny how people come up with all this stuff when the guy has been dead for hundreds of years and has no way to defend himself. How can someone really know if he translated it for those reasons?

I just believe that these things come up to discredit the True Word of God.

2007-06-20 03:29:33 · answer #10 · answered by Me 4 · 0 1

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