2007-06-19 07:45:57 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
When Christ says "this temple" he is refering to himself. 1 Corinthians 6:19 refers to the body as the temple of the Holy spirit.
Jesus is simply talking about his death and ressurection. Notices that he says that he will raise the temple in three days. Christ was in the tomb for three days and rose on the third.
We also learn an important life lesson. The Pharasees were in the flesh and automatically thought of the building they knew as the temple. These supposed men of God were supposed to always live a life in the spirit. A person who lives in the spirit understands the things of the spirit. If they were in the spirit they would've understood what Christ meant. They were to caught up in their title and forget their purpose.
Always remember, live a life in the spirit seeking God's face.
2007-06-19 07:55:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
On one occasion, when the Jews demanded a sign from Jesus, he replied:
“Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” The Jews thought he was speaking of the temple building, but the apostle John explains: “He was talking about the temple of his body.”
When he was resurrected by his Heavenly Father, the disciples recalled and understood this saying
2007-06-19 07:59:22 · answer #2 · answered by Uncle Thesis 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Other scriptures that are said by Trinitarians to express elements of their dogma
Notice that the first of these texts refers to only the Son; the other refers to both Father and Son; neither refers to Father, Son, and Holy Spirit and says that they comprise one God.
John 2:19-22:
By what he here said, did Jesus mean that he would resurrect himself from the dead? Does that mean that Jesus is God, because Acts 2:32 says, “This Jesus God raised up”? Not at all. Such a view would conflict with Galatians 1:1, which ascribes the resurrection of Jesus to the Father, not to the Son. Using a similar mode of expression, at Luke 8:48 Jesus is quoted as saying to a woman: “Your faith has made you well.” Did she heal herself? No; it was power from God through Christ that healed her because she had faith. (Luke 8:46; Acts 10:38) Likewise, by his perfect obedience as a human, Jesus provided the moral basis for the Father to raise him from the dead, thus acknowledging Jesus as God’s Son. Because of Jesus’ faithful course of life, it could properly be said that Jesus himself was responsible for his resurrection.
Says A. T. Robertson in Word Pictures in the New Testament: “Recall [John] 2:19 where Jesus said: ‘And in three days I will raise it up.’ He did not mean that he will raise himself from the dead independently of the Father as the active agent (Rom. 8:11).”—(New York, 1932), Vol. V, p. 183.
Reasoning Book
2007-06-20 15:08:38 · answer #3 · answered by TeeM 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Body.
His father raised him using his holy spirit. Jesus then returned to earth as a spirit.
Gal 1:1 - Paul, an apostle—not from men nor through man, but through Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead
Cor 15:45 - Thus it is written, 'The first man, Adam, became a living being'; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit.
2007-06-19 09:03:02 · answer #4 · answered by keiichi 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was referring to his physical body...so when he was resurrected three days after being dead the disciples took note of this and understood what/why Jesus kept on saying “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."
2007-06-19 08:16:46 · answer #5 · answered by brandy538 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was actually prophesying about his own life. He was speaking to and of murderous false religionists who would work to kill Jesus; Jesus' faithful life course would serve to allow Jehovah to resurrect Jesus.
(John 2:19) Jesus said to them: “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.”
Because trinitarianism is so desperate for "proof texts", they sometimes champion this one verse to claim that Jesus must be God since it was God who actually "did" the resurrecting. Perhaps they are unfamiliar with Jesus' words to the woman who was subject to the flow of blood. Do the trinitarians argue that the woman performed a miracle on herself, or do they admit that it was her faith which lead to her healing?
(Matthew 9:22) Jesus turned around and, noticing her, said: “Take courage, daughter; your faith has made you well.”
(Mark 5:34) He said to her: “Daughter, your faith has made you well.
(Luke 8:47-48) She was healed instantly. But he said to her: “Daughter, your faith has made you well
Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_06.htm
2007-06-19 08:32:19 · answer #6 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 6⤊ 0⤋
He was referring to His body, according to verse 21: "But He was speaking of the temple of His body."
2007-06-19 07:49:45 · answer #7 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He is referring to His body. That He would be killed, and then in three days, He would be resurrected.
2007-06-19 08:18:39 · answer #8 · answered by odd duck 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
His physical body.
2007-06-19 07:50:22 · answer #9 · answered by wanda3s48 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋