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Jesus said: "The Father and I are one." (JN 10:30)
In Greek, the language of the John's Gospel, the word 'heis' (masc.) means; 'Numerical one' and 'hen' (neut.); means
'Unity - in purpose'. In this verse apostle John has used 'hen' (Strong's #1520). Hence, the apostle was speaking of the "Unity in purpose". Those who may not be familiar with the Greek language or cannot have the access to the world famous concordance by James Strong may please look up the marginal notes in New American Standard Bible (NASB), to find out the specific meaning of this word with reference to this verse.
After having done that Jesus declared:
"And the glory which Thou hast given me, I have given to them (disciples); that they may be one, just as we are one."(JN 17:22)
Jesus also said: "Holy Father, protect them in your name that you have given me, so that they may be one, as we are one."(JN 17:11)

2007-06-19 04:29:21 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

In both the above verses the Greek word used by the apostle is 'hen' (Strong's # 1520). No upright and God fearing individual would go to the length of admitting that Jesus had declared the Twelve Disciples to be "co-equal" in status, like him or like his Father.
A question often raised is; If Jesus had not declared himself being "God", why did the Jews pick up the stones and were ready to kill him, upon hearing these words? The reply appears in the text that follows and there also appears a noteworthy conversation between Jesus Christ and Jews. Jesus did acknowledge before this angry crowd (see verse 36), that:
a) He was "sanctified" by God.
(This act cannot be performed unless there are "two distinctly independent entities or parties". One party was doing the act of "sanctifying" while another was being "sanctified").

2007-06-19 04:30:21 · update #1

b) He was "sent " by God.
(This text proves; One entity was "the sender", while the other was "the sent").

) He was "son" of God.
(This text proves; Jesus who had earlier quoted a verse from the Psalm to his contenders, was only asserting to be "the children of the Most High". Please read Psalm 82:6 and 7, for the details).

To say otherwise would simply indicate; Jesus who was "God Himself", upon seeing the stones being pickedwas petrified. He either mutated or modified his earlier Declaration of being "God" and involuntarily acknowledged that he was merely;
"a child of God, sent by God and sanctified by God".

2007-06-19 04:31:40 · update #2

18 answers

Within the books of Holy Bible there are verses that are easy to understand, clear or unconditionally explicit and others are simply allegorical, ambiguous or obscure. When a “man of extraordinary faith” reads the passages from his “favored” version, he tries to hold fast to each and every verse that expressly, remotely or even dubiously supports his personal beliefs for "Lord Jesus". He steadfastly believes that with the addition of two key ingredients - “Reliance and Hope” - any seemingly doubtful and dubious verse can ultimately emerge as an easy to understand passage. A passage that would remove all his earlier reservations and convince him to accept Jesus Christ as his "True God". However, this kind of pietistic approach with blind faith does not alter the text that was originally written by the Gospel writers.
Still, one has to try and keep knocking. The more Logical and Sensible thoughts are put to them, I am sure there will be some who will start thinking.

2007-06-19 22:28:03 · answer #1 · answered by The Skeptic 4 · 0 1

Let me make this real simple, either Jesus Christ is God or Jesus Christ was a lying; John 14:8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?
Now if this is not proof enough then lets look at few other statements; Isaiah 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
Why is the son called everlasting Father here and mighty God if they are not one maybe Isaiah didn't understand as much as the Nicene council that first formed your ideas more than 200 years after the last disciple died and called this the trinity a non-Bible word.
Also the words Messiah means God with us, and Jesus Christ was the Messiah; Daniel 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
Messiah is Hebrew and here it is from Strong's dictionary; 4899 mashiyach {maw-shee'-akh} from 4886; TWOT -- 1255c; n m
1) anointed, anointed one
Why did Jesus Christ tell one man no man was good as the scriptures taught Ecclesiastes 7:20 For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not.
then tell the Samaritian woman he was the Messiah; John4:25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.
26 Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he.
Also I would suppose this is not what this verse means; John 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Jesus being a man called himself the " I AM" that spoke to Moses also and was before Abraham;
John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. 59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.
The Jews understood well that there was only one God, and Jesus Christ teaching were that he was the person in flesh; Mark 12:29 And Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God is one Lord:
You can believe what you like but if Jesus Christ is not God then the Bible is a lie and should be thrown away.

2007-06-19 11:37:41 · answer #2 · answered by sirromo4u 4 · 3 0

Hello, in Hebrews 1:5-9 The Father Himself address Jesus as God, in Heb.13:8 Jesus has always been through out time, in John 8:58 Jesus is called The I AM of Exodus 3, Moses and the burning bush, in Isaiah 9:6 a prophecy talking of The Christ the same names calling The Father are addressing Jesus Christ, Mighty GOD, Father, also in John 1 we read Jesus was the active member of The Godhead that created this world in the first place, and in Gen.3:15 it was Jesus that told of His coming to earth to rid us of sin and satan, in Isaiah 14:12-15 we understand satan has a "i" problem but in Isaiah 53 [53:2] we read Jesus has just the opposite and He gave up His divine body to become like us, He became flesh and when He returned to Heaven and The Father He kept that same body FOREVER, by His stripes we are healed in Heaven He will have the ONLY body with marks on it, also Jesus forgave sin, [Matt.9] ONLY God forgives sins and your forgetting the most famous verse of all John 3:16 For God [the father] SO loved that He gave [Jesus gave Himself] that whosoever should BE-LIVE in Him should not perish but have everlasting life, so in order for me believing in Jesus for Him to give me that life HE "MUST" have life within Himself, but when He Jesus became man, He was here as we must live, He became The Son of God, but He was STILL GOD, find out more free bible lessons www.amazingfacts.org email me also not messenger wgr88@yahoo.com God bless.

2007-06-19 11:43:31 · answer #3 · answered by wgr88 6 · 2 0

What a load of illogically deduced crap on of all things, God! There is no human logic in the Godhead. Either you accept it because Jesus said it in which case you are a Christian or you don't(then you could end up a JW or a Muslim or a Krishna conscious or a whatever based on what you think he said he was)

2007-06-19 12:07:32 · answer #4 · answered by defOf 4 · 1 0

The only people that would deny that He is the Son of God, and that He and the Father are One, are those who would deny His divinity and, therefore His status as our Lord and Savior. These are the people who would have us deny His salvation.

One can twist Scripture to "mean" anything they want it too but, as Rush Limbaugh says, "Words mean things!" If Jesus said that He and the Father are One, it is so.

2007-06-19 11:38:29 · answer #5 · answered by †Lawrence R† 6 · 1 1

Jerry I admire your zeal stay with it. Yes Jesus was one in purpose However, Jesus was implanted in Mary's womb by God the Father to make Jesus Part God and part man.
Keep in mind my brother that Jesus told the religious leaders that He(Jesus) is the "I AM" who spoke to Moses. He literally carried his Father's title as Jehovah He also spoke to Abraham face to face concerning Sodom and Gomorrah. And then there's the compelling account in John1:1 In the beginning was the Word(Jesus) and the Word(Jesus) was with God and Word(Jesus)was God!
God Bless

2007-06-19 11:45:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

So far, I fail to see where any point you think you've made, is complicit with your assertion that Jesus "obviously" is not a part of the trinity. A lot of words and your efforts to impress us all with you perceived intellect and grasp of the Greek language, aren't enough to back up that claim Biblically. Amazing that so many scholars have come up with a different conclusion using the same texts you have. But, thanks for the reading material.

2007-06-19 11:38:11 · answer #7 · answered by Scott B 7 · 2 2

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning.

Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. In him was life, and that life was the light of men. The light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not understood it....

...The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, "This was he of whom I said, 'He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.' " From the fullness of his grace we have all received one blessing after another. For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only,who is at the Father's side, has made him known.

~John 1:1-5 & 14-18 (NIV)

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Seems clear enough.

2007-06-19 11:35:49 · answer #8 · answered by Randy G 7 · 3 2

Unity of purpose. You may have answered your own question.

All 3 are God, or Deity. Three persons; one God, one purpose.

2007-06-19 11:48:19 · answer #9 · answered by tcdrtw 4 · 2 0

May God bless you and bless us all. Unlike Jews and Muslims, Christians do not know the meaning of the Oneness of God. God is absolutely one; He is indivisible. Christians claim that the triune doctrine of theirs could be easily found in the concept of the egg (yolk, albumen and shell, yet still one egg) and this is what the Catholics and Protestants believe. The Orthodox have the concept of water (water could be liquid water or solid ice or water vapour, but in the end all are one thing: water).

This proves that they are corporealists and anthropomorphists from the beginning till the end. Isn't it enough that they claim Jesus to be God Incarnate?! That God could change to a human form?? That God changes?? That God was dead and buried?? That He was tortured??!!!

2007-06-19 11:38:28 · answer #10 · answered by Ash'ari Maturidi 5 · 0 4

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